Deck 9: Cellular and Physiological Response to Injury - the Role of the Immune System

Question 1

Necrosis refers to the cellular changes that occur during:​

A) ​metaplasia
B) ​dysplasia
C) ​cell death
D) ​cell growth
E) ​metastasis

Answer 1

C

Question 2

The immune system is typically divided into what two major categories?​

A) ​effective and non-effective
B) ​innate and acquired
C) ​mature and immature
D) ​natural and artificial
E) ​normal and auto-immune

Answer 2

B

Question 3

An insufficient oxygen supply (ischemia) interferes with cellular:​

A) ​apoptosis
B) ​mitosis
C) ​metabolism
D) ​differentiation
E) ​membrane integrity

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Which of the following are chemical mediators that direct vasodilation and vascular permeability?​

A) ​prostaglandins and bicarbonate
B) ​thromboxanes and fibrinogen
C) ​histamine and nitric oxide
D) ​leukotrienes and ammonia 
E) ​chemotaxins and interleukins 

Question 5

Free radicals are chemically unstable and searching for additional:​

A) ​electrons
B) ​hydrogen ions
C) ​protons 
D) ​ neutrons
E) ​carbon atoms

Question 6

Where are Peyer's patches located?​

A) ​spleen
B) ​throat
C) ​stomach
D) ​small intestine
E) ​large intestine

Question 7

What is the study of the distribution of disease within populations?​

A) ​epidemiology
B) ​pathogenesis
C) ​physiology
D) ​pathophysiology
E) ​ morbidity

Question 8

What is the term for immunity produced due to exposure to an antigen (infection or vaccination)?​

A) ​ enhanced immunity
B) ​boosted immunity
C) ​inherited immunity
D) ​passive immunity
E) ​active immunity

Question 9

What are the two central organs of the immune system?

A) ​spleen and tonsils
B) ​bone marrow and thymus gland
C) ​gut-associated lymphatic tissue and bronchial-associated lymphatic tissue
D) ​appendix and spleen
E) ​bone marrow and lymph nodes

Question 10

Where do all cells of the immune system originate?​

A) ​lymph glands
B) ​the liver
C) ​Peyer's patches
D) ​stem cells within the spleen
E) ​stem cells within bone marrow

Question 11

What does the prognosis of a disease refer to?​

A) ​the mortality rates of the disease
B) ​the degree of infectiousness
C) ​the ability for the disease to spread
D) ​the expected or usual outcome
E) ​the cause of the disease

Question 12

What organ is responsible for destruction of old RBCs and is a major site for the initiation of the immune response?​

A) ​spleen
B) ​liver
C) ​bone marrow
D) ​tonsils
E) ​thymus

Question 13

What's the name of the disease that results from prolonged exposure to high levels of glucocorticoid hormones?​

A) ​anaphylactic shock
B) ​Cushing's syndrome
C) ​hyperemia
D) ​severe combined immune deficiency
E) ​serum sickness

Question 14

What is amyloid?​

A) ​connective tissue associated with cancer
B) ​diseased connective tissue
C) ​starch-like substance present in diseased tissues
D) ​scar tissue associated with the liver
E) ​an enzyme that digests scar tissue

Question 15

An increase in cell size is termed:​

A) ​atrophy
B) ​hyperplasia
C) ​apoptosis
D) ​metaplasia
E) ​hypertrophy

Question 16

 What is the study of the disruption of normal physiologic processes called?​

A) ​epidemiology
B) ​pathogenesis
C) ​physiology
D) ​pathophysiology
E) ​pathology

Question 17

What do chemotaxins attract to the site of injury?​

A) ​interleukins and thromboxanes
B) ​prostaglandins and histamines
C) ​neutrophils and monocytes
D) ​T cells and B-lymphocytes
E) ​COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes

Question 18

What kills surface microbes on inanimate objects?​

A) ​antiseptics
B) ​antibiotics
C) ​betadine
D) ​disinfectants
E) ​detergents

Question 19

What does the term apoptosis mean?​

A) ​spread of cancer cells
B) ​genetically programmed cell death
C) ​an antibody to an exotoxin
D) ​antigen-specific non-responsiveness by a T or B cell
E) ​reduction in size of muscle cells

Question 20

Hyaline deposits are a mixture of what types of compounds?​

A) ​collagen, fibrin, amyloid
B) ​fatty acids, connective tissue, epithelium 
C) ​connective tissue, scar tissue, cholesterol
D) ​scar tissue, fibrin, fatty acids
E) ​collagen, cholesterol, epithelium

Question 21

Approximately how many Americans suffer from allergic diseases?​

A) ​between 8-12 million
B) ​between 20-25 million
C) ​at least 50 million
D) ​between 80-90 million
E) ​between 100-120 million

Question 22

What kind of transplant rejection occurs in bone marrow, but not heart or kidney transplants?​

A) ​host-versus-host (HVH)
B) ​host-versus-graft (HVG)
C) ​second-set rejection
D) ​graft-versus-host (GVH)
E) ​graft-versus-graft (GVG)

Question 23

What are transplants between identical twins called?​

A) ​allografts
B) ​xenografts
C) ​halografts
D) ​autografts
E) ​isografts

Question 24

What is the chief drawback of attenuated vaccines?

A) ​immunosuppression
B) ​reversion to the pathogenic form
C) ​death
D) ​autoimmune disease
E) ​chronic inflammatory response

Question 25

What is the percentage of European and North American adults who suffer from autoimmune diseases?​

A) ​3%
B) ​5-7%
C) ​9%
D) ​10-12%
E) ​14%

Question 26

What type of hypersensitivity reaction involves B-lymphocytes?

A) ​delayed hypersensitivity reactions
B) ​immediate hypersensitivity reactions
C) ​acquired hypersensitivity reactions
D) ​external hypersensitivity reactions
E) ​internal hypersensitivity reactions

Question 27

How many grams of protein per kilogram of bodyweight does she need for wound healing?​

A) ​0.5
B) ​0.8
C) ​1.0
D) ​1.3
E) ​2.0

Question 28

In liver disease, the blood concentration of what enzymes is elevated?​

A) ​COX-1 and COX-2
B) ​prostaglandinase and glucokinase
C) ​glucose-6-phosphotase and pyruvate dehydrogenase
D) ​alanine transferase and aspartate amino transferase
E) ​phenylalanine hydroxylaseand transaminase

Question 29

What type of wound has Mrs. P likely developed?

A) ​Stage I pressure ulcer
B) ​Stage II pressure ulcer
C) ​Stage III pressure ulcer
D) ​Stage IV peptic ulcer
E) ​Stage I gangrenous ulcer

Question 30

What is the most common cause of adhesions?

A) ​abdominal surgery
B) ​pneumonia
C) ​obesity
D) ​diabetes
E) ​rheumatoid arthritis

Question 31

What does lactoferrin do?​

A) ​destroys toxic microbes
B) ​binds iron, thus preventing use by bacteria
C) ​triggers blood clotting
D) ​increases vascular permeability
E) ​releases prostaglandins

Question 32

What is the preferred fuel for enterocytes, lymphocytes, and macrophages?

A) ​glutamine
B) ​glucose
C) ​ascorbic acid
D) ​omega-3 fatty acids
E) ​omega-6 fatty acids

Question 33

According to the National Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel, how many stages are there for pressure ulcers?

A) ​1
B) ​2
C) ​3
D) ​4
E) ​5

Question 34

What vitamin is needed to make collagen during wound repair?

A) ​vitamin A
B) ​vitamin B5
C) ​vitamin C
D) ​vitamin D
E) ​vitamin E

Question 35

How much water should Mrs. P drink each day to give her the best opportunity to heal?

A) ​at least 10 mL/kg
B) ​about 20 mL/kg
C) ​at least 30 mL/kg
D) ​about 50 mL/kg
E) ​at least 75 mL/kg

Question 36

How many kilocalories per kilogram of bodyweight does she need to properly heal?

A) ​about 10
B) ​about 15
C) ​about 19
D) ​about 23
E) ​about 30

Question 37

In developing (Third World) countries, what is the greatest cause of immunodeficiency?

A) ​malnutrition
B) ​genetic disorders
C) ​infectious disease
D) ​diabetes
E) ​medications

Question 38

What is the term for ineffective wound healing?​

A) ​epithelial dissonance
B) ​coagulation
C) ​apoptosis
D) ​eschar
E) ​dehiscence

Question 39

What gland(s) does Addison's autoimmune disease target?

A) ​thyroid
B) ​thymus
C) ​pancreas
D) ​pituitary
E) ​adrenals

Question 40

What supplement could benefit wound healing by increasing collagen deposition, improving nitrogen balance, and enhancing several parameters of immune function?

A) ​arginine
B) ​lysine
C) ​vitamin E
D) ​vitamin K
E) ​iron

Question 41

 The primary immune response normally begins with the proliferation of memory cells, which can be sufficient to block infection if virulence of the pathogens is low.

Question 42

Initially, _______________ were called lymphokines because the first ones discovered were produced by lymphocytes.

Question 43

T lymphocytes were named for the _______________, the site where they mature and differentiate.

Question 44

Material that accumulates in tissue spaces is called exudate.

Question 45

Pigment accumulation after cell injury can include _______________ and derivatives of _______________.

Question 46

Cardiac, skeletal, and neurological cells can be restored after injury if optimal conditions are maintained.

Question 47

Monocytes and macrophages are highly specialized cells that ingest and destroy cells and microbes via _______________.

Question 48

Autoimmune diseases have a strong tendency to run in families, with a 40% chance that a family with one affected adult will have another.

Question 49

Immune cells are often referred to as white blood cells or erythrocytes.

Question 50

Epidemiology provides data for outcome measures such as morbidity and mortality, and identifies risk factors associated with disease.

Question 51

A common cellular response to injury and disease is deposition of a substance called hyaline within and between the cells.

Question 52

Sterilization is accomplished by use of heat, chemicals, or _______________.

Question 53

Sensitization is the production of IgE antibodies after exposure to an allergen.

Question 54

The body reacts to injury with both a _______________ and a cellular response.

Question 55

The clinical course or _______________ includes impact and duration of the disease.

Question 56

Most vaccines are made from killed microorganisms and are not attenuated.

Question 57

 _______________ is deranged cellular growth and can result in abnormalities of size, shape, or function.

Question 58

When fibrinogen increases, clotting of erythrocytes _______________, which affect the rate of _______________.

Question 59

The usual outcome of disease is sometimes referred to as the _______________.

Question 60

Females are more likely to have immune-deficiencies because many such deficiencies involve recessive genes, often on the Y chromosome.

Question 61

_______________ vaccines are live mutants that have lost their pathogenicity while retaining immunogenicity, and provide more natural protection.

Question 62

Outline the four basic requirements of an effective immune system.

Question 63

Explain etiology of disease.

Question 64

Explain how accurate skin prick tests are for diagnosing allergies.

Question 65

Define the term metaplasia.

Question 66

Discuss the most common food allergies in the United States.

Question 67

Explain the innate immune response.

Question 68

_______________ occurs when a lymphocyte fails to respond when stimulated by its antigen-specific receptor.

Question 69

Healing of burns often results in development of _______________.

Question 70

Plasma cells are _______________ than B cells and packed full of endoplasmic reticulum to produce _______________ at a rate of 30,000 Ig/sec.

Question 71

Describe the difference between an antigen and an immunogen.

Question 72

List the different classes of interferons.

Question 73

Describe active immunization.

Question 74

With _______________ bone marrow transplants, the recipient is also the donor.

Question 75

In _______________ syndrome, WBCs invade and destroy glands that produce moisture, resulting in dry mouth and dry eyes.

Question 76

Protein-energy malnutrition in infancy and early childhood has adverse effects on the _______________.

Question 77

The most severe allergic reaction is _______________.

Question 78

Perniciuos anemia develops when a(n) _______________ reacts with intrinsic factor, resulting in decreased _______________ absorption.

Question 79

Long term use of _______________ is associated with many possible side effects, including hyperglycemia, osteoporosis, and protein loss/muscle wasting.

Question 80

Describe the signs and symptoms of inflammation.