Deck 19: Special Radiographic Procedures

Question 1

Which of the following instruments is not required during a knee arthrogram?

A)Sterile gauze
B)10-mL syringe
C)20-gauge needle
D)Arthroscope

Answer 1

Arthroscope

Question 2

The fingerlike extensions termed fimbriae connect to which part of the uterine tube?

A)Interstitial
B)Isthmus
C)Ampulla
D)Infundibulum

Answer 2

Infundibulum

Question 3

The preferred contrast medium for hysterosalpingography is:

A)positive, ionic, oil based.
B)positive, nonionic, water soluble.
C)negative carbon dioxide gas.
D)thin barium sulfate.

Answer 3

positive, nonionic, water soluble.

Question 4

What is the most common clinical indication for a postoperative (T-tube) cholangiogram?

A)Jaundice
B)Pancreatitis
C)Chronic cholecystitis
D)Residual calculi

Question 5

The purpose of the hysterosalpingography is to demonstrate the:

A)interior of the cervix, uterus, uterine tubes, and ovaries.
B)interior of the uterus for neoplasms or other abnormalities.
C)uterine cavity and the patency of the uterine tubes.
D)degree of openness of the cornu between the uterus and uterine tubes.

Question 6

A common fluoroscopy routine for knee arthrography is:

A)nine views of each meniscus rotated 20° between exposures.
B)nine views total of each knee rotated 20° between exposures.
C)six views each of lateral and medial menisci rotated 20° between exposures.
D)horizontal beam projections, six exposures per knee.

Question 7

Which of the four segments of the uterine tube communicates with the uterine cavity?

A)Interstitial
B)Isthmus
C)Ampulla
D)Infundibulum

Question 8

Which of the following is generally true for knee arthrography?

A)A common nontrauma clinical indication is a Baker's cyst.
B)A minimum of 20 mL of positive contrast media is introduced into joint.
C)During fluoroscopy, views are taken of each meniscus with the knee rotated 30° between exposures.
D)The amount of aspirated joint (synovial) fluid should equal the amount of injected contrast media.

Question 9

The patient must be NPO ____ hours (minimum) before a postoperative (T-tube) cholangiogram.

A)4
B)6
C)8
D)12

Question 10

What imaging modality is most frequently used to study the soft tissue structures of the temporomandibular joint?

A)Computed tomography (CT)
B)Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C)Conventional radiography
D)Ultrasound

Question 11

Which of the following is a contraindication to hysterosalpingography?

A)Pregnancy
B)Active uterine bleeding
C)Pelvic inflammatory disease
D)All of the above

Question 12

The uterine (fallopian) tubes are approximately ____ cm in length.

A)3 to 4
B)6 to 8
C)10 to 12
D)15 to 18

Question 13

Which of the four divisions of the uterus is the largest?

A)Fundus
B)Corpus (body)
C)Isthmus
D)Cervix

Question 14

Which part of the uterine tube opens into the peritoneal cavity?

A)Isthmus
B)Interstitial
C)Infundibulum
D)None of the above

Question 15

Which of the following conditions is often a contraindication for an ERCP?

A)Pseudocyst
B)Biliary stenosis
C)Hepatitis
D)Cirrhosis

Question 16

What size needle is used to introduce the contrast media during a shoulder arthrogram?

A)2 inches, 16 gauge
B)1 1/2 inches, 18 gauge
C)2 inches, 25 gauge
D)2 3/4- to 3 1/2-inch spinal needle

Question 17

The majority of ERCP procedures are performed by a:

A)radiologist.
B)radiologic technologist.
C)gastroenterologist.
D)surgeon.

Question 18

Which of the following projections would NOT be commonly performed during a shoulder arthrogram?

A)Anteroposterior external/internal rotation projections
B)Scapular Y projection
C)Glenoid fossa projection
D)Transaxillary projection

Question 19

Which of the following is not an indication for knee arthrography?

A)Injury or tears to rotator cuff
B)Evaluate for Baker's cyst
C)Injury or tears to collateral or cruciate ligaments
D)Injury or tears to menisci

Question 20

During an arthrogram, why is the knee flexed following injection of contrast media before imaging?

A)To reduce the viscosity of the contrast media
B)To force the contrast media outside of the joint if there is a tear
C)To coat the soft tissue structures with contrast media
D)None of the above; the knee should not be flexed during an arthrogram after injection of contrast media.

Question 21

The suggested positioning routine for lumbar myelography is:

A)patient prone: semierect horizontal beam lateral, left and right lateral decubitus (AP and PA), and PA projection.
B)patient on side: right lateral decubitus (AP) and left lateral decubitus (PA).
C)patient prone: semierect horizontal beam lateral.
D)patient supine: semierect AP and horizontal beam lateral.

Question 22

Myelography is often contraindicated if a lumbar puncture has been performed within the previous:

A)2 weeks.
B)3 weeks.
C)30 days.
D)6 months.

Question 23

Which of the following is NOT a valid radiographic criterion for hysterosalpingography?

A)Cannula or balloon catheter should be seen within the cervix.
B)Ovaries should be opacified and well demonstrated.
C)Contrast medium should be seen within the peritoneum.
D)The pelvic ring should be centered within the collimation field.

Question 24

During a myelogram performed with the patient prone, why is a positioning block (bolster) placed under the abdomen for the lumbar puncture?

A)To force the contrast media toward the head
B)For patient comfort
C)To widen the interspinous spaces
D)To prevent reflux of contrast media back into the syringe

Question 25

What is the most common type of contrast media given during a myelogram?

A)Iodinated, oil based
B)Room air
C)Carbon dioxide
D)Nonionic, water soluble

Question 26

How is the water-soluble contrast media eliminated following a myelogram?

A)Withdrawn through a needle/syringe
B)Remains in the spinal canal
C)Excreted by the kidneys
D)Excreted by the lungs

Question 27

Which of the following is a suggested conventional positioning routine for cervical myelography following fluoroscopy and spot imaging?

A)Patient prone: PA lateral, swimmer's lateral, and one lateral decubitus-horizontal beam
B)Patient on side: right lateral decubitus (AP) and left lateral decubitus (PA)
C)Patient prone: PA horizontal beam and swimmer's lateral of C6 or C7
D)Patient prone: horizontal beam lateral (centered to C4-5) and swimmer's horizontal beam lateral (centered to C7)

Question 28

What is the most common clinical indication for a myelogram?

A)Benign tumors
B)Malignant tumors
C)Herniated nucleus pulposus
D)Increased intracranial pressure

Question 29

Why is the supine AP projection rarely taken during a thoracic spine myelogram?

A)Patient discomfort at puncture site
B)Contrast media may leak from puncture site
C)Contrast media tend to pool near the midthoracic region
D)Excessive radiation exposure to anterior chest structures

Question 30

The literal definition of orthoroentgenography is:

A)long bone measurement.
B)straight or right angle to radiography.
C)joint radiography.
D)extremity study.

Question 31

Imaging for a hysterosalpingography includes centering of the CR and image receptor (IR) to:

A)4 inches (10 cm) superior to the symphysis pubis.
B)the symphysis pubis.
C)the level of the ASIS.
D)2 inches (5 cm) superior to the symphysis pubis.

Question 32

What is the name of the special ruler used in orthoroentgenography?

A)Long bone ruler
B)Shepard-Logan ruler
C)Bell-Thompson ruler
D)Myer-Smith ruler

Question 33

Other than prone, what additional position is recommended for a cisternal puncture?

A)Erect-seated
B)Left lateral decubitus
C)Right lateral decubitus
D)Trendelenburg

Question 34

Which of the following factors is most critical when performing orthoroentgenography?

A)The patient should not move between exposures.
B)Short exposure time techniques must be used.
C)A long source IR distance (SID) must be used for less beam divergence.
D)Both right and left limbs must be examined at the same time for length comparisons.

Question 35

What is the most common injection site for a myelogram?

A)C1-2
B)T12
C)L4-5
D)L3-4

Question 36

Which of the following is a contraindication for myelography?

A)Arachnoiditis
B)Blood in the CSF
C)Increased intracranial pressure
D)All of the above

Question 37

A limb-shortening surgical procedure is termed:

A)epiphysiodesis.
B)limbectomy.
C)epiphysioectomy.
D)diaphysiodeses.

Question 38

What is an average dosage of contrast media given during a myelogram?

A)1 to 2 mL
B)3 to 4 mL
C)9 to 15 mL
D)20 to 24 mL

Question 39

Where is the contrast media instilled during a myelogram?

A)Subarachnoid space
B)Epidural space
C)Subdural space
D)Spinal cord

Question 40

The chief disadvantage of CT scanograms as compared with orthoroentgenography is:

A)distortion of joints due to penumbra.
B)artifacts from special ruler placed in gantry.
C)CT involves high cost and specialized equipment.
D)CT produces a poor image of bones.

Question 41

Match each of the following tomographic terms with its correct definition.(Use each term only once.)

The plane where the target anatomy is clear

A)Object plane
B)Exposure angle
C)Tomogram
D)Blur
E)Fulcrum
F)Tomographic angle

Question 42

CT and MRI arthrography has significantly reduced the number of radiographic arthrograms performed.

Question 43

The pivot point between the x-ray tube and IR in a tomographic system is termed:

A)amplitude.
B)fulcrum.
C)tube trajectory.
D)objective plane.

Question 44

Objects within the body that are farther from the objective plane have:

A)greater movement.
B)increased blurring.
C)less blurring.
D)both A and B.

Question 45

Objects within the objective plane will appear:

A)blurred.
B)sharper and in relative focus.
C)as radiolucent densities.
D)as streaks.

Question 46

The patient must remain NPO (nothing by mouth) a minimum of 8 hours following an ERCP.

Question 47

Which of the following exposure angles will produce the thinnest sectional thickness?

A)10°
B)20°
C)30°
D)40°

Question 48

Match each of the following tomographic terms with its correct definition.(Use each term only once.)

Distortion of objects outside the object plane

A)Object plane
B)Exposure angle
C)Tomogram
D)Blur
E)Fulcrum
F)Tomographic angle

Question 49

The technologist must follow standard precautions when handling bile.

Question 50

Which one of the following is not a factor that directly controls or influences the amount of tomographic blurring?

A)Size of anatomy
B)Tomographic angle
C)Object-IR distance
D)Exposure angle

Question 51

Match each of the following tomographic terms with its correct definition.(Use each term only once.)

The pivot point between tube and IR

A)Object plane
B)Exposure angle
C)Tomogram
D)Blur
E)Fulcrum
F)Tomographic angle

Question 52

Intercondylar fossa projections are often required during a conventional knee arthrogram.

Question 53

Objects within the body above and below the focal plane appear blurred because:

A)they are not placed parallel to the direction of tube travel.
B)their images move from one part of the IR to another as the tube and IR move through their travel during the exposure.
C)they are situated too close to the focal plane.
D)the body part is too large for sufficient penetration of x-rays.

Question 54

An endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) can either be a diagnostic or a therapeutic procedure.

Question 55

Match each of the following tomographic terms with its correct definition.(Use each term only once.)

The factor that determines slice thickness

A)Object plane
B)Exposure angle
C)Tomogram
D)Blur
E)Fulcrum
F)Tomographic angle

Question 56

Which of the following procedures is the most common application of conventional tomography?

A)Intravenous urography
B)Long bone studies
C)Sternum studies
D)Vertebral column studies

Question 57

The total distance the x-ray tube travels is termed:

A)tomographic angle.
B)fulcrum.
C)objective plane.
D)fulcrum level.

Question 58

Another term for tomography is:

A)computed tomography.
B)orthoroentgenography.
C)body section radiography.
D)orthostatic radiography.

Question 59

Match each of the following tomographic terms with its correct definition.(Use each term only once.)

Radiograph produced by a tomographic unit

A)Object plane
B)Exposure angle
C)Tomogram
D)Blur
E)Fulcrum
F)Tomographic angle

Question 60

Match each of the following tomographic terms with its correct definition.(Use each term only once.)

The total distance the x-ray tube travels

A)Object plane
B)Exposure angle
C)Tomogram
D)Blur
E)Fulcrum
F)Tomographic angle

Question 61

Long bone measurement of the lower limb requires that the entire lower limb be included on a single radiograph.

Question 62

The wrist should be placed into the pronated PA position for a long bone study of the upper limb.

Question 63

Lower limb orthoroentgenograms should be performed nongrid.

Question 64

The primary factor affecting the sectional thickness, as controlled by the operator, is exposure angle.

Question 65

Most disk pathology of the spine occurs in the cervical and lumbar regions.

Question 66

Arachnoiditis is a clinical indication for a myelogram procedure.

Question 67

Gonadal shielding cannot be used for long bone measurement of the lower limb for males or females.

Question 68

Linear tomography is primarily used for studies of the temporal bones.

Question 69

More blurring occurs with a shorter exposure angle.