Deck 20: Diagnostic and Therapeutic Modalities

Question 1

The pigmented area surrounding the nipple is termed the:

A)tail of the breast.
B)areola.
C)lobules.
D)prolongation.

Answer 1

areola.

Question 2

The structures labeled 4 are:

A)lobules.
B)alveoli.
C)glands.
D)ampulla.

Answer 2

lobules.

Question 3

The average male breast is classified as being:

A)fibroglandular.
B)fibro-fatty.
C)fatty.
D)muscle.

Answer 3

fatty.

Question 4

Which of the following structures is labeled 1?

A)Alveoli
B)Blood vessels
C)Cooper's ligament
D)Ducts

Question 5

The glandular tissue of the breast is divided into 15 to 20:

A)lobes.
B)sections.
C)partitions.
D)ducts.

Question 6

Which of the following structures is labeled 2?

A)Lobes
B)Ampulla
C)Alveoli
D)Ducts

Question 7

Blood vessels, connective tissue, and other small structures seen on a mammogram are termed:

A)alveoli.
B)ampulla.
C)lobules.
D)trabeculae.

Question 8

What is another term for the tail of the breast?

A)Caudal portion
B)Areola
C)Axillary prolongation
D)Axilla

Question 9

The 2 o'clock position in the left breast corresponds to the ____ o'clock position in the right breast.

A)2
B)8
C)10
D)5

Question 10

The structures labeled 3 refer to:

A)glands.
B)ampulla.
C)alveoli.
D)lobes.

Question 11

The risk of breast cancer occurring in men is about ____ of that for women.

A)1% to 2%
B)5% to 6%
C)10% to 11%
D)None of the above; breast cancer does not occur in men.

Question 12

In which quadrant of the left breast would the 7 o'clock position be located?

A)UOQ
B)UIQ
C)LIQ
D)LOQ

Question 13

Using the anode-heel effect, the cathode of the x-ray tube should be placed over the:

A)apex.
B)base.
C)midportion.
D)nipple.

Question 14

Which of the following breast tissues is least dense?

A)Glandular
B)Adipose
C)Fibrous
D)Connective

Question 15

The portion of the breast near the nipple is termed the:

A)apex.
B)base.
C)inframammary fold.
D)alveolar portion.

Question 16

What is the breast classification of a 45-year-old woman with three or more pregnancies?

A)Fibroglandular
B)Fibro-fatty
C)Fatty
D)Fibroconnective

Question 17

The American Cancer Society estimates one in _____ women will develop invasive breast cancer.

A)two.
B)four.
C)six.
D)eight.

Question 18

The U.S.Mammography Quality Standards Act (MQSA) of October 1994 requires that:

A)all mammograms be performed with film-screen systems with less than a 2% repeat rate.
B)patient skin dose be reduced to less than 200 mrad per projection as monitored by the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS).
C)all sites (except VA facilities) meet quality standards and be certified by the DHHS.
D)all women older than age 40 have a screening mammogram.

Question 19

What is the breast classification of a 35-year-old woman without children?

A)Fibroglandular
B)Fibro-fatty
C)Fatty
D)Fibroconnective

Question 20

The junction between the inferior aspect of the breast and anterior chest wall is termed the:

A)inframammary fold.
B)pectoralis major.
C)retromammary space.
D)inferior margin.

Question 21

What type of contrast media is employed for a contrast mammogram?

A)Carbon dioxide
B)Microbubbles
C)Iodinated
D)Nitrogen

Question 22

Which imaging modality is most ideal for a breast with an implant?

A)Analog mammography
B)MRI
C)Sonography
D)CT

Question 23

Which soft tissue structure must be in profile for the craniocaudal and mediolateral oblique projections?

A)Pectoral muscle
B)Tail of the breast
C)Nipple
D)Glandular tissue

Question 24

Which patient position is preferred for most mammogram projections?

A)Supine
B)Prone
C)Standing
D)Decubitus

Question 25

Positron emission tomography (PET) detects breast cancer by measuring the increased metabolism of ____ by cancerous cells.

A)carbon
B)phosphates
C)oxygen
D)sugar

Question 26

Computer-aided detection (CAD) is reported to improve cancer detection rates by:

A)2%.
B)4%.
C)5% to 15%.
D)50%.

Question 27

Computer-aided detection uses a computerized detection ____ to analyze various suspicious breast lesions.

A)signal
B)reader
C)laser
D)algorithm

Question 28

MGD is an abbreviation for:

A)modulation gradient distance.
B)mammographic glandular dose.
C)mean glandular dose.
D)microglandular dose.

Question 29

What is the magnification factor with a source object distance (SOD) of 40 inches (100 cm) and a source image receptor distance (SID) of 60 inches (150 cm)?

A)2°
B)2.5°
C)2.2°
D)1.5°

Question 30

Which of the following imaging modalities can best distinguish between a solid mass and a cyst in the breast?

A)Film-screen mammography
B)Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C)Sonography
D)Digital mammography

Question 31

What is the energy source used with digital breast tomosynthesis (DBT)?

A)Radionuclide
B)Pulsed magnetic field
C)Conventional mammography x-ray tube
D)Ultrabright light

Question 32

Where should the image receptor be placed for the craniocaudal projection?

A)At the level of the axilla
B)At the level of the sternal angle
C)At the level of the xiphoid process
D)At the level of the inframammary fold

Question 33

What type of radionuclide tracer is most commonly used with PET studies of the breast?

A)Sulfur colloid
B)18F-FDG
C)Technetium-99m-sestamibi
D)None of the above

Question 34

What kV range should be used for analog (film-screen) mammography?

A)23 to 28
B)30 to 35
C)50 to 65
D)20 to 22

Question 35

Which one of the following imaging modalities is best for detecting silicone leakage from an intracapsular rupture of a breast implant?

A)Nuclear medicine
B)PET
C)MRI
D)Ultrasound

Question 36

What is the primary reason for high patient doses delivered during screening mammography?

A)Use of high kV
B)Increased use of digital imaging systems
C)Large number of projections taken
D)Use of low kV

Question 37

Which of the following definitions would apply to the ACR abbreviation SIO?

A)Slight inferior oblique
B)Superolateral-inferomedial oblique
C)Sagittal image oblique
D)Superoinferior oblique

Question 38

Magnification studies of the breast and breast specimens should use a focal spot size of:

A)0.1 mm.
B)0.1 cm.
C)0.3 mm.
D)0.5 mm.

Question 39

What is the American College of Radiology standard for maximum repeat exposures taken during mammography?

A)Less than 5%
B)Less than 3%
C)Less than 10%
D)Less than 15%

Question 40

What is the chief disadvantage of using MRI as a breast screening tool?

A)High patient dose
B)High false-positive rate
C)Patient discomfort
D)Poor tissue resolution

Question 41

How is the breast positioned for the mediolateral oblique projection?

A)Drawn anterior and medial away from the chest wall
B)Drawn posterior and lateral away from the chest wall
C)Drawn inferior and medial toward the chest wall
D)Drawn anterior and lateral away from the chest wall

Question 42

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for a bone densitometry procedure?

A)Bone mass that is too low
B)Pregnancy
C)Recent vertebral augmentation
D)Childbearing age

Question 43

What is the most referenced dose unit in mammographic imaging?

A)Mean skin dose
B)Mean glandular dose
C)Mean dose equivalent
D)Mean exposure dose

Question 44

Which of the following is most effective in demonstrating a breast with an implant?

A)Mayer method
B)ACR technique
C)Eklund method
D)Sonography

Question 45

The most common type of breast cancer is:

A)lobular carcinoma.
B)fibroadenoma.
C)infiltrating ductal carcinoma.
D)intraductal papilloma.

Question 46

Noninvasive cancers (DCIS and LCIS) comprise approximately ____ of all breast cancer diagnoses.

A)10%
B)15% to 20%
C)25% to 30%
D)60% to 70%

Question 47

The most common projections performed as routine projections throughout the United States and Canada are:

A)bilateral CC, MLO, and ML.
B)bilateral CC and MLO.
C)unilateral CC, MLO, and XCCL.
D)unilateral CC, MLO, XCCL, and ML.

Question 48

A small growth inside the duct of the breast near the nipple is termed:

A)intraductal papilloma.
B)Paget's disease.
C)gynecomastia.
D)fibroadenoma.

Question 49

Where should the marker and patient identification be in regard to the anatomy?

A)Near apex
B)Near base
C)Upper right aspect of image
D)Near axilla

Question 50

Which of the following is NOT a possible risk factor for osteoporosis?

A)Estrogen deficiency
B)Alcohol abuse
C)Excessive body weight
D)Sedentary lifestyle

Question 51

How should a breast implant be moved for a craniocaudal projection?

A)It is displaced anteriorly toward the apex.
B)It is displaced posteriorly toward the chest wall.
C)It is displaced laterally.
D)No attempt should be made to move the implant because of the danger of rupture.

Question 52

What projection should be performed if a deep lesion in the axillary tissue is not seen on the exaggerated craniocaudal projection?

A)MLO-mediolateral oblique
B)CC-craniocaudal
C)AT-axial tail

Question 53

What is most generally the type of shielding used during mammography?

A)Breast shielding
B)Thyroid shielding
C)Apron shielding
D)No shielding

Question 54

Which of the following projections best demonstrates the axillary tissue of the breast and a portion of the pectoral muscle?

A)Craniocaudal
B)Mediolateral oblique
C)Exaggerated craniocaudal
D)Mediolateral

Question 55

What CR angle (in relationship to the vertical) is required for the mediolateral (true lateral) projection?

A)90°
B)45°
C)60°
D)70°

Question 56

How is the head of the patient positioned for the laterally exaggerated craniocaudal projection?

A)Turned away from the side being examined
B)Turned toward the side being examined
C)Tilted toward the IR
D)Tilted away from the IR

Question 57

Why can AEC not be used for mammography of a breast with an implant?

A)The image will be overexposed.
B)The image will be underexposed.
C)AEC provides greater patient dose as compared with manual techniques.
D)This statement is false; AEC should be used for all studies including implants.

Question 58

A loss of ____ of trabecular bone is necessary before it can be visualized on conventional radiographs.

A)30% to 50%
B)10% to 20%
C)2% to 5%
D)60% to 70%

Question 59

Which projection best demonstrates inflammation or pathology in the deep lateral aspect of the breast?

A)Lateromedial oblique
B)Craniocaudal
C)Exaggerated craniocaudal
D)Mediolateral oblique

Question 60

How much central ray (CR) angulation is required for the mediolateral oblique projection of an average-sized breast?

A)45°
B)60°
C)70°
D)90°

Question 61

Bone cells that are responsible for bone resorption are:

A)osteoclasts.
B)osteoblasts.
C)osteons.
D)osteocytes.

Question 62

Which of the following is NOT a technique or method of bone densitometry being performed today?

A)Quantitative ultrasound
B)Single-energy photon absorptiometry (SPA)
C)Quantitative computed tomography (QCT)
D)Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry

Question 63

Which of the following techniques or methods provides bone mineral density (BMD) measurements for both trabecular and cortical bones?

A)Quantitative ultrasound
B)Quantitative computed tomography
C)Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
D)All of the above

Question 64

A patient with a spine T-score of less than or equal to -2.5 (but no fractures) is classified according to the World Health Organization as:

A)normal.
B)osteopenic.
C)osteoporotic.
D)severely osteoporotic.

Question 65

Alendronate (Fosamax) is an example of a(n):

A)bisphosphonate.
B)selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM).
C)parathyroid hormone.
D)estrogen.

Question 66

A patient's T-score given in a bone density report:

A)compares the patient's BMD with that of a young, healthy person of the same gender.
B)compares the patient's BMD with that of an age-matched normal population.
C)compares the patient's BMD with that of an age- and sex-matched normal population.
D)is the same for all measurement sites.

Question 67

Radiopharmaceuticals are introduced into the body:

A)via inhalation.
B)via ingestion.
C)intravenously.
D)by all of the above.

Question 68

Technetium 99m has a physical half-life of approximately:

A)15 to 20 minutes.
B)120 to 150 minutes.
C)6 hours.
D)12 hours.

Question 69

Reproducibility as applied for DXA systems is also termed:

A)quality assessment.
B)system reliability.
C)accuracy.
D)precision.

Question 70

A patient's Z-score given in a bone density report:

A)compares the patient's BMD with that of the normal population.
B)compares the patient's BMD with that of an age-matched normal population.
C)compares the patient's BMD with that of an average individual of the same sex and age.
D)is the same for all measurement sites.

Question 71

Which other region of the body can be scanned if the patient has spine or hip artifacts (i.e., advanced arthritis)?

A)Cervical spine
B)Mandible
C)Foot
D)Forearm

Question 72

The standard(s) being used with dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry to compare the patient's bone density measurements is/are:

A)A-score.
B)Z-score.
C)T-score.
D)both B and C.

Question 73

Which is the method of choice for evaluating trabecular bone?

A)Quantitative computed tomography
B)Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
C)Quantitative ultrasound
D)Dual-energy photon absorptiometry

Question 74

One of the most common radioactive materials used in nuclear medicine procedures is:

A)xenon.
B)iodine 131.
C)thallium.
D)technetium 99m.

Question 75

A group of radioactive drugs used in the diagnosis and treatment of disease is the definition for:

A)radiopharmaceutical.
B)gamma emitters.
C)radionuclide.
D)photon-emissive materials.

Question 76

A patient with a spine T-score of between -1 and -2.5 is classified according to the World Health Organization as:

A)normal.
B)osteopenic.
C)osteoporotic.
D)severely osteoporotic.

Question 77

Estrogen replacement therapy is given primarily to:

A)stimulate new bone growth.
B)reduce bone loss.
C)promote healing of stress fractures of the hip.
D)increase blood flow to bone.

Question 78

Which technique or method is most common for measuring bone density using a peripheral site such as the os calcis?

A)Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
B)Single-energy x-ray absorptiometry
C)Quantitative ultrasound
D)All of the above

Question 79

Often, the gamma camera in nuclear medicine systems is coupled with ____ to provide both an anatomic and functional study of the body.

A)functional MRI
B)sonography
C)CT
D)SPECT

Question 80

Which region of the spine is scanned during a DXA procedure?

A)C7-T-5
B)Sacroiliac joints
C)T-12 to the iliac crest
D)T1 to T-12