Deck 39: Automation in Hematology

Question 1

Which of the following instruments does not rely on impedance to enumerate cells:

A)Advia 120
B)XE-2100
C)Sapphire
D)Coulter

Answer 1

Advia 120

Question 2

What cellular characteristic is evaluated by radio frequency?

A)Size
B)Density
C)Shape
D)Complexity

Answer 2

Density

Question 3

An analyzer is measuring a clot forming by the interaction of a stationary probe with a moving probe in a continuous motion.Suddenly the moving probe stops,and a clot is seen.Name the analyzer.

A)Diagnostica Stago
B)MDA 180
C)Trinity Biotech AMAX Destiny Plus
D)BBL Fibrometer

Answer 3

BBL Fibrometer

Question 4

Regarding the CELL-DYN Sapphire,which parameter is determined by the impedance principle?

A)Hemoglobin
B)Nucleated erythrocyte count
C)Platelet count
D)Total leukocyte count

Question 5

Which of the following binds to residual RNA in reticulocytes on the Sysmex XE-2100 analyzer?

A)New methylene blue
B)Propidium iodide
C)Polymethine
D)Oxazine

Question 6

Which of the following instruments uses both electromechanical and optical density as a means of clot detection?

A)STArt 4 Coagulation system
B)BBL Fibrosystem
C)Trinity Biotech Coag-A-Mate XM
D)AMAX Destiny Plus

Question 7

Which of the following represents the degree of light scatter that reflects cell complexity on the CELL-DYN Sapphire?

A)0 degrees
B)7 degrees
C)90 degrees
D)90 degrees depolarized

Question 8

Which of the following analyzers measures reticulocytes by sphering the blood cells prior to analysis?

A)Coulter LH series
B)Coulter Gen-S
C)Abbott Sapphire
D)Sysmex XE-2100

Question 9

Using the Fibrometer instrument,clot detection occurs when:

A)Fibrin strands complete an electric circuit.
B)Fibrin formation increases light absorbance.
C)Fibrin strands decrease ball movement in a magnetic field.
D)Fibrin formation decreases turbidity of the reaction mixture.

Question 10

Which of the following is a reported parameter for the ADVIA 120 but not for the LH 750 instrument?

A)RDW-CV
B)Retic%
C)CHCM
D)MCVr

Question 11

Which parameter does the Coulter LH 750 instrument derive from a histogram?

A)Platelet count
B)MCH
C)Leukocyte count
D)Hct

Question 12

Hydrodynamic focusing is used in automated cell-counting instruments to:

A)Prevent coincidence passage through the detection aperture
B)Increase the visibility of the cells passing through the aperture
C)Allow for maximal light absorbance through the cells passing through the aperture
D)Ensure adequate uptake of fluorescent staining by the cells

Question 13

Which of the following analyzers uses radio frequency to detect and differentiate leukocytes?

A)Bayer Advia 2120
B)Abbott Sapphire
C)Sysmex XE-2100
D)Coulter Gen-S

Question 14

Choose the correct statement regarding chromogenic analysis in hemostasis testing from the following choices.

A)Chromogenic analysis depends on the selected analyte's ability to cleave a chromophore.
B)Chromogenic analysis is not subject to preanalytical problems because of its mechanism of clot detection.
C)There is no difference between chromogenic analysis and electromechanical detection.
D)Chromogenic analysis depends on the optical detection of ball movement through a steel tube as a clot forms.

Question 15

Which instrument does not use fluorescence intensity in its determination of reticulocytes?

A)LH 750
B)XE-2100
C)ADVIA 120
D)CELL-DYN Sapphire

Question 16

Which of the following instruments is capable of performing electromechanical,optical density,chromogenic,and immunologic methodologies?

A)STArt 4
B)Destiny Plus
C)STA Compact
D)Coag-A-Mate XM

Question 17

In the reticulocyte determination,using the Sysmex XE-2100,the fluorescent dye containing oxazine and polymethine penetrates the cell membranes and stains the blood cells.What does the oxazine bind to within the cells?

A)Residual DNA
B)Hemoglobin
C)Residual RNA
D)Mitochondria

Question 18

Using the chromogenic methodology,a coagulation protein's activity level is related to:

A)An increase in turbidity
B)The observed color change
C)The time needed to convert fibrinogen to fibrin
D)A decreased viscosity as plasmin digests fibrin

Question 19

Which of the following parameters are calculated on the Coulter Gen-S?

A)Hemoglobin,MCH,MCHC
B)Hematocrit,MCH,MCHC
C)Absolute neutrophil count,RBC count,platelet count
D)RBC count,hematocrit,MCH

Question 20

Which parameter does the Sysmex XE-2100 instrument determine by using light-scattering and fluorescence intensity characteristics?

A)Platelet count
B)Erythrocyte count
C)Absolute basophil count
D)Absolute lymphocyte count

Question 21

Which of the following is measured immunologically on the Diagnostica Stago STA Compact?

A)von Willebrand factor
B)D-dimer
C)Lupus anticoagulants
D)PT and APTT

Question 22

When using the CELL-DYN Sapphire to perform CBCs,a laboratory professional can choose to run the ImmunoPlt assay if:

A)Leukocyte count is decreased.
B)Erythrocyte fragments are detected.
C)Nucleated erythrocytes are observed.
D)Erythrocyte count is increased.

Question 23

Name two analytes that can be measured immunologically,and list two instruments that currently use this method.

Question 24

Cell volume and cell number are required elements for which of the following?

A)WBC scatterplots
B)WBC cytograms
C)RBC histograms
D)RBC scattergrams

Question 25

Compare and contrast the methods of detection for the following analyzers:
a.Sysmex XE-2100
b.Abbott Cell-Dyn Sapphire
c.Coulter LH 780
d.Advia 2120

Question 26

Which technologies are used to generate the LH 750's WBC scatterplot?

A)Impedance,light scatter,and conductivity
B)Fluorescence intensity and radio frequency
C)Absorbance and conductivity
D)Light scatter,absorbance,and radio frequency

Question 27

Explain the purpose of the following used in the standard hematologic cell-counting detection methods:
a.VCS flow cell
b.Photodetector
c.Sheath fluid
d.Direct current detection block

Question 28

The purpose of the photodetector on the Diagnostica Stago STA Compact is to:

A)Measure an increase in absorbance caused by the interaction of VWF with its monoclonal antibody
B)Measure an increase in transmittance caused by the interaction of D-dimer fragments in the patient's plasma with its monoclonal antibody
C)Promote the ball's oscillation movement through the electromagnetic sensors
D)Measure the amount of cleavage of p-nitroaniline

Question 29

D-dimers are measured by which method on the Trinity Biotech AMAX Destiny Plus?

A)Electromechanical
B)Optical density
C)Chromogenic
D)Immunologic

Question 30

Which analyzer measures platelets in the same channel as reticulocytes?

A)Coulter Gen-S
B)Sysmex XE-2100
C)Advia 2120
D)Trinity Biotech AMAX Destiny Plus

Question 31

The principle that relies on detecting resistance as cells pass through a photo-detector and is used by most of the major hematology analyzers is:

A)Spectrophotometry
B)Impedance
C)Radio frequency
D)MAPSS technology

Question 32

Which analyzer has the ability to quantify nucleated RBCs and calculate a corrected WBC count?

A)Coulter Gen-S
B)Sysmex XE-2100
C)Abbott Cell Dyn Sapphire
D)Coulter LH 780

Question 33

Which analyzer does not use cyanide-free detection of hemoglobin?

A)Advia 120
B)Advia 2120
C)Abbott Cell-Dyn Sapphire
D)Sysmex XE-2100

Question 34

What is the principle of impedance?
Name at least two instruments that employ this method for blood cell counting.

Question 35

Which instrument utilizes contour gating to classify different leukocyte cell types?

A)ADVIA 120
B)XE-2100
C)LH 750
D)CELL-DYN Sapphire

Question 36

The immature platelet fraction (IPF)is a parameter derived from the Sysmex XE-2100's RET scattergram.An increased IPF is associated with:

A)Aplastic anemia
B)Pernicious anemia
C)Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D)Immune thrombocytopenic purpura

Question 37

The Sysmex XE-2100 instrument printout reports a middle fluorescent ratio of 7.0 and a high fluorescent ratio of 1.3.What is the immature reticulocyte fraction?

A)9.1
B)91.7
C)8.3
D)5.7

Question 38

The immunologic technique available on the AMAX Destiny Plus utilizes specific reagents with:

A)Soluble monoclonal antibody
B)Fluorescent-labeled microparticles
C)Enzyme-labeled monoclonal antibody
D)Monoclonal antibody-coated microparticles