Deck 18: Biopsychology of Psychiatric Disorders

Question 1

The probability that a close biological relative (i.e., a parent, sibling, or child)of patient suffering from schizophrenia will also be diagnosed with schizophrenia is about

A) 1%.
B) 2%.
C) 10%.
D) 35%.
E) 55%.

Answer 1

10%.

Question 2

Catatonic schizophrenic patients often experience a unique symptom when somebody moves them:

A) visual hallucinations.
B) waxy flexibility.
C) auditory hallucinations.
D) total rigidity.
E) tremors.

Answer 2

waxy flexibility.

Question 3

The first two antischizophrenic drugs were

A) Librium and chlorpromazine.
B) chlorpromazine and reserpine.
C) L-DOPA and reserpine.
D) haloperidol and chlorpromazine.
E) haloperidol and Valium.

Answer 3

chlorpromazine and reserpine.

Question 4

The symptoms of schizophrenia are often divided into two categories:

A) positive and negative.
B) active and passive.
C) genetic and epigenetic.
D) genetic and experiential.
E) anterograde and retrograde.

Question 5

The concordance rate of schizophrenia in monozygotic twins is

A) the same as that in dizygotic twins.
B) the same as that in any two siblings.
C) slightly more than that in husbands and wives.
D) slightly more than that in pairs of unrelated individuals.
E) about 45%.

Question 6

About what proportion of the adult population suffers from schizophrenia?

A) 0.01%
B) 0.1%
C) 1%
D) 12%
E) 17%

Question 7

Schizophrenia typically begins in

A) infancy.
B) childhood.
C) adolescence or early adulthood.
D) middle age.
E) old age.

Question 8

Which of the following can trigger schizophrenic episodes?

A) amphetamine
B) cocaine
C) snakeroot
D) all of the above
E) both A and B

Question 9

Chlorpromazine

A) is a benzodiazepine.
B) exerts an immediate antischizophrenic effect.
C) was originally developed as an antihistamine.
D) is commonly used in the treatment of depression.
E) both A and C

Question 10

Evidence that environmental factors play a role in the etiology of schizophrenia is that the concordance rate for identical twins is

A) greater for males than for females.
B) much less than 100%.
C) much more than 50%.
D) more than for dizygotic twins.
E) greater among cocaine users.

Question 11

Studies of monozygotic and dizygotic twins suggest that schizophrenia

A) is caused entirely by genetic factors.
B) is uninfluenced by genetic factors.
C) is greatly influenced by genetic factors.
D) is a mental disorder.
E) doesn't run in families.

Question 12

Dopamine agonist is to dopamine antagonist as

A) reserpine is to chlorpromazine.
B) cocaine is to reserpine.
C) reserpine is to amphetamine.
D) chlorpromazine is to reserpine.
E) amphetamine is to cocaine.

Question 13

Hallucinations associated with schizophrenia often take the form of

A) ghostly shapes.
B) religious figures.
C) flashing lights.
D) imaginary voices making critical comments or telling the patient what to do.
E) the DSM-IV.

Question 14

Unlike reserpine, chlorpromazine does not

A) reduce the extracellular levels of dopamine.
B) increase dopamine levels.
C) produce Parkinsonian side effects.
D) cause dementia.
E) function as a dopamine antagonist.

Question 15

Chlorpromazine binds to dopamine receptors without activating them, and keeps dopamine from binding to them.Accordingly, chlorpromazine is classified as a

A) receptor blocker.
B) dopamine agonist.
C) dopamine antagonist.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C

Question 16

Reserpine is not currently used in the treatment of schizophrenia because it

A) is ineffective.
B) is an antihistamine.
C) can produce a dangerous decrease in blood pressure.
D) is an anxiolytic.
E) violates the dopamine theory of schizophrenia.

Question 17

A disorder of psychological function sufficiently severe to require treatment by a psychiatrist is a __________ disorder.

A) neuropsychological
B) psychiatric
C) neurobehavioral
D) neurochemical
E) degenerative

Question 18

Which of the following is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

A) hallucinations
B) inappropriate affect
C) delusions
D) incoherent speech or thought
E) all of the above

Question 19

Which of the following early experiential factors have been implicated in some cases of schizophrenia?

A) stress
B) faulty autoimmune reactions
C) infections
D) exposure to toxins
E) all of the above

Question 20

The active ingredient of snakeroot is

A) chlorpromazine.
B) reserpine.
C) atropine.
D) morphine.
E) chlordiazepoxide.

Question 21

An effective atypical antischizophrenic drug is

A) clozapine.
B) buspirone.
C) reserpine.
D) chlorpromazine.
E) iproniazid.

Question 22

The main problem with the prescription of clozapine to treat schizophrenia is that it

A) produces a severe blood disorder in a small proportion of patients.
B) is not effective in the treatment of schizophrenia.
C) produces some of the symptoms of Parkinson's disease.
D) is not effective in the treatment of depression.
E) is an atypical neuroleptic.

Question 23

Structural brain-imaging studies of schizophrenic patients typically reveal

A) widespread abnormalities.
B) reduced brain size.
C) abnormally large cerebral ventricles.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 24

Phenothiazines bind effectively to

A) D1 receptors.
B) D2 receptors.
C) glutamate receptors.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B

Question 25

A major problem with the therapeutic use of neuroleptics in the treatment of schizophrenia is that they

A) help only a small proportion of patients.
B) tend to act on only some symptoms.
C) produce disturbing side effects.
D) all of the above
E) both A and C

Question 26

In general, conventional neuroleptics tend to be more effective against

A) negative schizophrenic symptoms.
B) positive schizophrenic symptoms.
C) anhedonia.
D) unipolar schizophrenic disorders.
E) bipolar schizophrenic symptoms.

Question 27

Clozapine

A) is effective against schizophrenia.
B) does not produce Parkinsonian side effects.
C) has a high affinity for D2 receptors.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B

Question 28

The brain damage that is observed in schizophrenic patients

A) is particularly severe in the dopaminergic structures of the brain.
B) is widespread.
C) does not usually become apparent for several years after the original diagnosis.
D) all of the above
E) both B and C

Question 29

Because schizophrenia appears to be a neurodevelopmental disorder, several studies have tracked the development of brain damage in schizophrenic patients.Meta-analyses of these studies indicate that

A) extensive brain damage exists when patients first seek medical help and have their first brain scan.
B) brain damage continues to develop after the initial diagnosis.
C) damage to different areas of the brain develops at different rates.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 30

Depressed patients who do not experience periods of mania are said to suffer from __________ affective disorders.

A) bipolar
B) reactive
C) unipolar
D) endogenous
E) seasonal

Question 31

The __________ individual typically leaves behind a trail of unfinished projects, unpaid bills, and broken relationships.

A) schizophrenic
B) neuroleptic
C) chronically depressed
D) manic
E) catatonic

Question 32

To be diagnosed as clinical depression (or major depressive disorder), the condition must

A) last more than 2 weeks.
B) not involve anhedonia.
C) be triggered by an obvious traumatic event.
D) involve a suicide attempt.
E) last less than 2 weeks.

Question 33

Those phenothiazines and butyrophenones that have a great affinity for D2 receptors are potent

A) barbiturates.
B) antidepressants.
C) neuroleptics.
D) anxiolytics.
E) both B and C

Question 34

The fact that dopamine receptor blockers take several weeks to exert their antischizophrenic effects suggests that

A) blocking dopamine receptors triggers some slow-developing change that is the critical therapeutic effect.
B) dopamine plays no role in schizophrenia.
C) antischizophrenic drugs block dopamine receptors only after several weeks.
D) dopamine receptors play no role in schizophrenia.
E) larger doses should be used.

Question 35

Clozapine is

A) a typical neuroleptic.
B) an atypical neuroleptic.
C) a potent D2 blocker.
D) widely used in the treatment of depression.
E) widely used in the treatment of mania.

Question 36

Haloperidol is a potent

A) neuroleptic.
B) D2 receptor ligand.
C) antischizophrenic drug.
D) all of the above
E) both A and C

Question 37

Introduction of the atypical neuroleptics has been beneficial because

A) they do not produce Parkinsonian side effects.
B) patients who do not respond to typical neuroleptics sometimes respond to atypical neuroleptics.
C) they bind particularly well to D2 receptors.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B

Question 38

The clinical effectiveness of typical antischizophrenic drugs is positively correlated with the degree to which they bind to

A) dopamine.
B) glutamate receptors.
C) D1 receptors.
D) D2 receptors.
E) autoreceptors.

Question 39

Many of the people who experience clinical depression also experience recurring periods of

A) schizophrenia.
B) Tourette syndrome.
C) mania.
D) panic.
E) epilepsy.

Question 40

Depression is often divided into two categories: reactive depression and __________ depression.

A) bipolar
B) endogenous
C) unipolar
D) acute
E) chronic

Question 41

Iproniazid, the first antidepressant,

A) was initially developed as an antischizophrenic drug.
B) is even more affective against mania.
C) usually produces dangerous drops in blood pressure.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 42

Imipramine

A) is a serotonin and norepinephrine antagonist.
B) blocks the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine.
C) blocks serotonin and norepinephrine receptors.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C

Question 43

The concordance rates for affective disorder are highest for

A) bipolar disorders and monozygotic twins.
B) bipolar disorders and dizygotic twins.
C) unipolar disorders and monozygotic twins.
D) unipolar disorders and dizygotic twins.
E) unipolar disorders and siblings.

Question 44

Imipramine is a

A) tricyclic antidepressant.
B) MOA inhibitor.
C) phenothiazine.
D) butyrophenone.
E) serotonin antagonist.

Question 45

Iproniazid is rarely prescribed for the treatment of depression because

A) it is ineffective.
B) of the cheese effect.
C) of the walnut effect.
D) it produces rebound mania.
E) of the peanut effect.

Question 46

Drugs that reduce depression without increasing mania or reduce mania without increasing depression are called

A) mood stabilizers.
B) SSRIs.
C) tricyclic antidepressants.
D) MAO inhibitors.
E) monoamines

Question 47

Selective norepinephrine-reuptake inhibitors are used in the treatment of

A) schizophrenia.
B) depression.
C) tuberculosis.
D) mania.
E) addiction.

Question 48

MAO inhibitors are no longer used in the treatment of depression because they

A) are ineffective against depression.
B) produce dangerous decreases in respiration.
C) block MAO's ability to break down tyramine.
D) are effective only if they are taken with iproniazid.
E) both A and B

Question 49

The first tricyclic antidepressant to be marketed

A) was initially thought to be an MAO inhibitor.
B) was imipramine.
C) eventually proved to be even more effective against stroke.
D) all of the above
E) both A and C

Question 50

About what percentage of people in Western societies suffer from clinical depression at some point in their lives?

A) 1%
B) 0.1%
C) 10%
D) 3%
E) 23%

Question 51

Evidence directly linking stress to the development of clinical depression is

A) abundant.
B) rapidly accumulating.
C) strong.
D) all of the above
E) sparse.

Question 52

Several large scale studies have compared the effectiveness of various antidepressants to placebos.These studies have found that

A) various classes of antidepressants are similarly effective.
B) antidepressants are not much better than placebos.
C) antidepressants are 70 % affective against unipolar affective disorder and 65% effective against bipolar affective disorder.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C

Question 53

Which of the following is not a selective serotonin-reuptake inhibitor?

A) fluoxetine
B) Prozac
C) lithium
D) Paxil
E) Zoloft

Question 54

Prozac is a slight structural variation of

A) tricyclic antidepressants.
B) lithium.
C) neuroleptics.
D) phenothiazines.
E) MAO inhibitors.

Question 55

Lithium has often been used as a treatment for

A) unipolar affective disorder.
B) bipolar affective disorder.
C) schizophrenia.
D) cocaine psychosis.
E) nausea.

Question 56

Clinically effective tricyclic antidepressants, inhibit the reuptake of

A) serotonin.
B) norepinephrine.
C) GABA.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B

Question 57

In 1957, this drug became the first drug to be marketed as an antidepressant:

A) iproniazid.
B) imipramine.
C) reserpine.
D) clozapine.
E) lithium.

Question 58

Lithium salts in high doses produce

A) nausea.
B) schizophrenia.
C) depression.
D) the cheese effect.
E) mania.

Question 59

Iproniazid is to imipramine as

A) tricyclic antidepressant is to MAO inhibitor.
B) cheese is to yogurt.
C) MAO inhibitor is to tricyclic antidepressant.
D) depression is to mania.
E) mania is to depression.

Question 60

Fluoxetine is marketed under the name

A) Prozac.
B) Lithium.
C) Imipramine.
D) Iproniazid.
E) Paxil.

Question 61

A meta-analysis of 46 studies indicates that about _________ of individuals will suffer from an anxiety disorder at some point in their lives.

A) 50%
B) 17%
C) 10%
D) 7%
E) 33%

Question 62

Most prevalent of all psychiatric disorders are the __________ disorders.

A) manic
B) anxiety
C) schizophrenic
D) depressive
E) phobic

Question 63

Librium and Valium are

A) chlordiazepoxide and diazepam, respectively.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) commonly prescribed for the treatment of schizophrenia.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B

Question 64

Which of the following symptoms is not commonly associated with anxiety disorders?

A) tachycardia
B) hypotension
C) high blood pressure
D) nausea
E) breathing difficulties

Question 65

Disorders characterized by extreme feelings of anxiety and severe stress responses in the absence of an apparent precipitating stimulus are classified as

A) generalized anxiety disorders.
B) panic attacks.
C) phobic anxiety disorders.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorders.
E) tachycardia.

Question 66

Many studies have found structural and functional brain pathology in patients suffering from affective disorders.Although there is little consensus about the exact location of the brain pathology, it is most commonly observed in two structures: the

A) amygdala and anterior cingulate cortex.
B) hypothalamus and thalamus.
C) hypothalamus and hippocampus.
D) striatum and substantia nigra.
E) temporal and parietal cortex.

Question 67

Phobic disorders, panic disorders, and obsessive compulsive disorders are all categories of

A) schizophrenia.
B) depression.
C) anxiety disorder.
D) mania.
E) unipolar affective disorder.

Question 68

In response to stress, depressed individuals

A) synthesize more corticotropin-releasing hormone.
B) release more adrenocorticotropic hormone.
C) release more glucocorticoids.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 69

When anxiety disrupts normal behavioral functioning, it is generally referred to as

A) fear.
B) hypertension
C) an anxiety disorder.
D) a panic disorder.
E) a phobia.

Question 70

When insufficient neurotransmitter is released at a synapse, there is often compensatory __________ of the receptors?

A) up-regulation
B) degeneration
C) regeneration
D) blockade
E) realignment

Question 71

Diathesis means

A) depression.
B) a genetic susceptibility.
C) a stressful encounter.
D) hormonal.
E) up-regulation.

Question 72

Benzodiazepines

A) are GABAA agonists.
B) are monoamine agonists.
C) are catecholamine antagonists.
D) are monoamine antagonists.
E) bind to serotonin receptors.

Question 73

Disorders characterized by recurring uncontrollable anxiety-producing thoughts and impulses are classified as __________ disorders.

A) panic
B) phobic
C) obsessive-compulsive
D) schizophrenic
E) manic-depressive

Question 74

Chronic fear that persists in the absence of any direct threat is known as

A) psychological fear.
B) anxiety.
C) panic.
D) a phobia.
E) the Selye syndrome.

Question 75

The diathesis-stress theory of depression is that depression is caused by

A) extra genes.
B) missing genes.
C) the interaction of a genetic susceptibility and stress.
D) faulty genes.
E) none of the above

Question 76

It has been estimated that benzodiazepines are currently being used by approximately __________ of adult North Americans.

A) 10%
B) 2%
C) 1%
D) 20%
E) 27%

Question 77

The diathesis-stress model is a prominent theory of

A) clinical depression.
B) mania.
C) autism.
D) Tourette's syndrome.
E) catatonic schizophrenia.

Question 78

The monoamine theory of depression is based on the fact that

A) depressed people have high levels of monoamine.
B) depressed people have low levels of monoamine.
C) most drugs used to treat depression are monoamine agonists.
D) most drugs used to treat depression are monoamine antagonists.
E) both A and D

Question 79

Anxiety disorders are

A) now reasonably rare.
B) the most prevalent of all psychiatric disorders.
C) often treated with benzodiazepines or serotonin agonists.
D) both A and C
E) both B and C

Question 80

Some success has been reported in treating clinical depression with chronic low-level electrical stimulation of the___________ through implanted electrodes.

A) anterior cingulate gyrus
B) amygdala
C) posterior thalamus
D) precentral gyrus
E) striatum