Deck 22: Drugs Affecting Circulation: Antihypertensives, Anti-anginals, Anti-thrombotics

Question 1

What agents act to lower blood pressure by stopping the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II?

A)Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs)
B)Angiotensin II receptor blockers
C)Diuretics
D)β blockers

Answer 1

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs)

Question 2

Which of the following agents reduce total peripheral resistance by a direct action on vascular smooth muscle?

A)Angiotensin blockers
B)Vasodilators
C)Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
D)Calcium channel blockers

Answer 2

Vasodilators

Question 3

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs)produce which of the following effects?
1)Decrease in renal blood flow
2)Reduction of peripheral arterial pressure
3)Increase in renal blood flow
4)Significant increase in heart rate
5)Increase in cardiac output

A)2,4,and 5 only
B)1,2,and 4 only
C)2,3,and 5 only
D)1,2,3,4,and 5

Answer 3

2,3,and 5 only

Question 4

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs)are indicated for which of the following?
1)Heart failure
2)Systolic dysfunction
3)Post-myocardial infarction
4)Hypertension
5)Proteinuric kidney disease

A)4 only
B)1,2,and 4 only
C)1,2,3,and 4 only
D)1,2,3,4,and 5

Question 5

Anticoagulants work by

A)preventing the formation of the fibrin clot.
B)lysing thrombi by degrading fibrin.
C)dilating vessels so that clots are less likely to form.
D)inhibiting the action of platelets.

Question 6

Lasix and Bumex are

A)thiazide diuretics.
B)loop diuretics.
C)osmotic diuretics.
D)potassium-sparing diuretics.

Question 7

Hypertension in adults is defined as a blood pressure greater than

A)120/80 mm Hg.
B)130/85 mm Hg.
C)140/90 mm Hg.
D)160/100 mm Hg.

Question 8

A significant drug interaction occurs between angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs)and

A)corticosteroids.
B)loop diuretics.
C)NSAIDs.
D)antibiotics.

Question 9

Thiazide diuretics increase excretion of
1)sodium.
2)chloride.
3)calcium.
4)potassium.
5)magnesium.

A)1 and 2 only
B)3,4,and 5 only
C)1,2,4,and 5 only
D)1,2,3,4,and 5

Question 10

First-line agents for treatment of uncomplicated hypertension include

A)diuretics only.
B)thiazide diuretics,ACEIs,ARBs,and CCBs.
C)ACEIs and $\alpha$ -blocking agents.
D)ACEIs, $\beta$ blockers,and ARBs.

Question 11

The most commonly used anticoagulant is

A)warfarin.
B)aspirin.
C)heparin.
D)protamine sulfate.

Question 12

The classes of diuretics include which of the following?
1)Loops
2)Potassium-sparing
3)Osmotics
4)Thiazides
5)Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

A)1 and 4 only
B)2,3,and 5 only
C)1,2,4,and 5 only
D)1,2,3,4,and 5

Question 13

Uncontrolled hypertension increases the risk of which of the following?
1)Myocardial infarction
2)Peripheral arterial disease
3)Angina
4)Stroke
5)Renal failure

A)1 and 3 only
B)2 and 4 only
C)1,4,and 5 only
D)1,2,3,4,and 5

Question 14

Nitrates can be administered by which of the following routes?
1)Transdermal
2)Inhalation
3)Oral
4)Intravenous
5)Sublingual

A)1 and 5 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1,3,4,and 5 only
D)1,2,3,and 5 only

Question 15

________ is a symptom of myocardial ischemia.

A)Peripheral swelling
B)Angina
C)Low oxygen saturation
D)Headache

Question 16

Nitroglycerin relieves chest pain by

A)decreasing heart rate.
B)increasing force of heart contractions.
C)dilating coronary arteries.
D)constricting coronary arteries.

Question 17

The most common side effect of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs)is

A)persistent dry cough.
B)loss of taste.
C)rash.
D)orthostatic hypotension.

Question 18

All patients with angina should receive what drug for prophylaxis of a myocardial infarction?

A)Heparin
B)Dopamine
C)Lidocaine
D)Aspirin

Question 19

Damage to vital body organs resulting from hypertension is called

A)congestive heart failure.
B)multiple organ/system failure.
C)cardiovascular disease.
D)chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

Question 20

The product of cardiac output and total peripheral resistance defines

A)arterial blood pressure.
B)central venous pressure.
C)afterload.
D)preload.

Question 21

Aspirin is

A)an anticoagulant.
B)an antiplatelet agent.
C)an analgesic.
D)a thrombolytic.

Question 22

Your 37-year-old patient has an initial blood pressure reading of 160/98 mm Hg.No other readings have been taken since this time.Should he be diagnosed as having hypertension?

A)Yes
B)No

Question 23

Your 74-year-old patient has a recorded blood pressure of 185/125 mm Hg.He is not currently showing any signs or symptoms of acute organ complications.You would label his condition a

A)hypertensive urgency.
B)hypertensive emergency.
C)hypertensive crisis.
D)both A and C.

Question 24

Centrally acting adrenergic agents lower blood pressure by

A)affecting cardiac output.
B)affecting peripheral resistance.
C)neither A nor B.
D)both A and B.

Question 25

What is Kcentra indicated for?

A)Diuresis
B)Urgent reversal of warfarin
C)Hypertensive crisis
D)Angina

Question 26

The standard for monitoring warfarin therapy is

A)international normalized ratio (INR).
B)complete blood count.
C)prothrombin time (PT).
D)pulmonary function testing.

Question 27

Novo Seven initiates thrombin generation by activating factor

A)V.
B)VII.
C)VIII.
D)X.

Question 28

The dose of aspirin for prevention of myocardial infarction is

A)325 to 650 mg every 4 hours.
B)50 to 325 mg daily.
C)81 to 325 mg daily.
D)500 to 1.5 g daily.

Question 29

Glycoprotein (GP)inhibitors are indicated for the treatment of
1)acute coronary syndromes.
2)unstable angina.
3)deep vein thrombosis.
4)hypertension.
5)patients undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).

A)5 only
B)1,2,and 5 only
C)1,2,4,and 5 only
D)1,2,3,4,and 5

Question 30

The unmonitored dosing for unfractionated heparin for deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism is

A)bolus of 60 U/kg (maximum 400 U)and then 12 U/kg/hr.
B)175 U/kg every 24 hours.
C)initial 333 U/kg and then 250 U/kg every 12 hours.
D)1 mg/kg subcutaneously every 12 hours.

Question 31

Thrombolytic agents should be given ________ in relation to the onset of symptoms.

A)within 12 hours
B)within 2 days
C)within minutes
D)within 1 to 2 weeks

Question 32

Delayed-onset heparin-induced thrombocytopenia type 2 (HIT-2)is due to

A)congestive heart failure.
B)multiple organ/system failure.
C)cardiovascular disease.
D)formation of antiplatelet antibodies.

Question 33

Side effects of centrally acting adrenergic agents include
1)dry mouth.
2)constipation.
3)urinary retention.
4)blurred vision.
5)central nervous system side effects.

A)5 only
B)1,3,and 5 only
C)1,2,4,and 5 only
D)1,2,3,4,and 5

Question 34

The most common adverse effect associated with thrombolytic agents is

A)dry mouth.
B)heparin-induced thrombocytopenia type 2.
C)cardiovascular disease.
D)bleeding.

Question 35

Antihypertensive effects of $\beta$ blockers include
1)blockade of $\beta$ receptors on the renal juxtaglomerular cells.
2)blockade of $\beta$ receptors in the lungs.
3)blockade of myocardial $\beta$ receptors.
4)blockade of Na⁺ channels in the luminal membrane of the cells in the distal tubules.
5)blockade of central nervous system $\beta$ receptors.

A)1 and 2 only
B)1,3,and 5 only
C)1,2,4,and 5 only
D)1,2,3,4,and 5

Question 36

Thrombolytics restore coronary blood flow by

A)dilating the artery.
B)preventing fibrin clot formation.
C)preventing platelet aggregation.
D)dissolving the thrombus.

Question 37

Vascular smooth muscle and cardiac cell contraction is dependent on

A)the free extracellular calcium ion concentration.
B)the free intracellular calcium ion concentration.
C)the free extracellular potassium ion concentration.
D)the free intracellular potassium ion concentration.

Question 38

Disease conditions and medications that cause hypertension include which of the following?
1)Cushing's syndrome
2)Hypothyroidism
3)Pheochromocytoma
4)Amphetamines
5)Pseudoephedrine

A)1,2,and 5 only
B)1,4,and 5 only
C)1,3,4,and 5 only
D)1,2,3,4,and 5