Deck 24: Immunity and Host Defense

Question 1

Blood and lymph have the following in common EXCEPT

A) nucleated cells.
B) proteins.
C) red blood cells.
D) none of these

Answer 1

C

Question 2

IgG,IgM,and IgA are examples of ________ found in blood.

A) antibodies
B) antigens
C) bacteria
D) pathogens

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Phagocytes have general antibody receptors called ________ that bind to any antibody attached to an antigen.

A) antigens
B) antigen receptors
C) Fc receptors
D) membrane detectors

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Which is an example of acquisition of natural passive immunity?

A) a fetus protected from disease by its mother's antibodies
B) a person who received his or her yearly influenza vaccine
C) a person who acquired the chickenpox
D) a person who received tetanus antiserum after stepping on a rusty nail

Question 5

The secondary lymphoid organs consist of the following EXCEPT

A) lymph nodes.
B) mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT).
C) spleen.
D) All of these organs are secondary lymphoid organs.

Question 6

The ability of humans to resist a disease is called

A) dormancy.
B) immunity.
C) resistance.
D) susceptibility.

Question 7

Which of the following is TRUE about cytokines?

A) They are proteins.
B) They play an important role in immunity.
C) They play a role in the growth of stem cells.
D) They are proteins that play an important role in immunity and the growth of stem cells.

Question 8

The process by which antibodies block interactions between pathogens or their products and host cells is termed

A) attenuation.
B) complement.
C) interference.
D) neutralization.

Question 9

Which of the treatments listed below would be MOST effective for a patient with a genetic defect that causes severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)?

A) intravenous antibiotics
B) bone marrow transplant
C) multiple immunizations
D) repeated doses of antisera

Question 10

Enhanced phagocytosis of antibody-sensitized cells is known as

A) complementation.
B) immunization.
C) opsonization.
D) tolerance.

Question 11

An example of pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMP)is

A) cell-surface proteins.
B) flagellin proteins.
C) lipopolysaccharide (LPS).
D) pilus.

Question 12

Which of the following are molecular mediators of inflammation?

A) chemokines
B) cytokines
C) erythrocytes
D) both chemokines and cytokines

Question 13

T cells interact with the peptide-MHC complex using

A) cytokines.
B) granzyme and perforin.
C) T-cell receptors.
D) the antibodies present on the surface of the cell.

Question 14

Which of the following cell types has NO nucleus?

A) erythrocytes
B) lymphocytes
C) phagocyte
D) All of these cells lack a nucleus.

Question 15

Which of the following can cause allergy symptoms and inflammation by degranulation?

A) dendritic cells
B) erythrocytes
C) macrophage
D) polymorphonuclear leukocyte

Question 16

Adaptive immunity occurs when

A) death results from pathogen infection.
B) the innate immune response fails to eliminate pathogens in the body.
C) virulent pathogen infections persist in the body after the initial innate defense response.
D) the innate immune response fails to eliminate pathogens in the body and virulent infections persist after the initial innate defense response.

Question 17

The unique antigen-reactive proteins of T cells are

A) antibodies.
B) immunoglobins.
C) T cell receptors.
D) None of these is correct.

Question 18

The rapid increase in adaptive immunity after a second antigen exposure is called

A) immune memory.
B) specificity.
C) tolerance.
D) immune memory, specificity, or tolerance.

Question 19

Stem cells are produced and developed in the

A) bone marrow.
B) brain.
C) liver.
D) stems of plants.

Question 20

Cells that can engulf foreign particles,and can ingest,kill,and digest most bacterial pathogens are called

A) red blood cells.
B) phagocytes.
C) reticulocytes.
D) resistant cells.

Question 21

Which of the following immunogens is MOST effective as a vaccine?

A) chemically inactivated bacteria
B) dead virus
C) live virus
D) toxoid

Question 22

Type I hypersensitivity is caused by the release of vasoactive products from mast cells coated with

A) IgA.
B) IgE.
C) IgG.
D) IgM.

Question 23

The cells active in both innate and adaptive immunity develop from common pluripotent precursors in the bone marrow called

A) B cells.
B) killer cells.
C) stem cells.
D) leukocytes.

Question 24

In Hashimotos's disease,autoantibodies are made against ________,a product of the thyroid gland.

A) bacteria
B) hemoglobin
C) thyroglobulin
D) viruses

Question 25

DiGeorge's syndrome is a developmental defect that prevents the maturation of the thymus.What cell type would be reduced by this condition?

A) T cells
B) B cells
C) macrophages
D) lymphocytes

Question 26

The transfer of antibodies through the placenta from mother to fetus is an example of

A) natural passive immunity.
B) innate immunity.
C) natural active immunity.
D) artificial active immunity.

Question 27

Which of these is often used as a prophylactic measure to protect a person against future attack by a pathogen?

A) antiserum injection
B) artificial passive immunity
C) vaccination
D) None of these are correct.

Question 28

Which of the following diseases is/are associated with organ-specific autoimmune disease?

A) autoimmune hypothyroidism
B) juvenile (type I) diabetes
C) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
D) autoimmune hypothyroidism and juvenile (type I) diabetes

Question 29

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)is an example of a disease caused by type ________ hypersensitivity.

A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV

Question 30

An antigen must be at least ________ amino acids long to be effective in a vaccine.

A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 100

Question 31

A diagnostic test for M.tuberculosis exposure

A) utilizes an inflammatory reaction that occurs if there has been previous exposure to M. tuberculosis antigens.
B) relies on previous tuberculin vaccination.
C) uses an antiserum to detect antibodies in the blood that are only formed if there has been previous exposure to M. tuberculosis antigens.
D) relies on an innate immune response that occurs only if there has been previous exposure to M. tuberculosis antigens.

Question 32

New vaccine strategies resulting from progress in biochemistry and molecular biology include the production of

A) DNA vaccines.
B) recombinant vector vaccines.
C) synthetic peptide vaccines.
D) DNA, recombinant vector, and synthetic peptide vaccines.

Question 33

All the following can cause contact dermatitis EXCEPT

A) jewelry.
B) latex gloves.
C) poison ivy.
D) superantigens.

Question 34

The inflammatory cytokines IL-1,IL-6,and TNF-α are also

A) opsonizing agents that coat foreign cells.
B) activating cytokines that stimulate Th1 cells to replicate.
C) capable of producing systemic fever by stimulating the release of prostaglandins in the brain.
D) part of the complement system that results in the destruction of foreign cells.

Question 35

Adaptive immune responses are directed at pathogen molecules called

A) antigens.
B) antibodies.
C) T-cell receptors.
D) PAMP.

Question 36

The body's non-inducible,preexisting ability to recognize and destroy pathogens or their products is called

A) adaptive immunity.
B) innate immunity.
C) phagocytosis.
D) cytotoxic response.

Question 37

The essential protective role for T cell immunity is protection from

A) viruses.
B) extracellular pathogens.
C) bacteria.
D) intracellular pathogens.

Question 38

The first defense cells that interact with a pathogen in the body are

A) T cells.
B) macrophages.
C) B cells.
D) mast cells.

Question 39

The life-threatening condition that may develop during a type I hypersensitivity reaction is called

A) anaphylaxis.
B) septic shock.
C) stroke.
D) toxic shock.

Question 40

After the first exposure to an antigen,a ________ stimulates growth and multiplication of antigen-reaction cells.

A) secondary innate immune response
B) primary adaptive immune response
C) phagocytic immune response
D) hyperactive cytotoxic response

Question 41

The T cell,with its T cell receptor,can recognize antigens only when the antigens are complexed with self proteins known as major histocompatibility complex found on host cell surfaces.

Question 42

Monocytes and granulocytes are the two lineages of myeloid cells.

Question 43

Antibodies are soluble proteins produced by T cells.

Question 44

Anticoagulants promote the clotting of blood.

Question 45

The purposeful artificial stimulation of active immunity to a particular infectious disease is known as

A) immunodeficiency.
B) hypersensitivity.
C) immunization.
D) opsonization.

Question 46

Erythrocytes are the most numerous cells in human blood.

Question 47

Superantigens produce a harmful immune response because

A) they activate too many T cells, causing excessive inflammation and cell damage.
B) they initiate a type I allergic response resulting in excessive inflammation.
C) too many phagocytes are activated and destroy host tissue.
D) a strong immune response is necessary to protect the host from the pathogen.

Question 48

Immunity results from the actions of cells that circulate throughout the body,primarily through the blood and lymph.

Question 49

An attenuated strain of a pathogen

A) has lost its virulence, but may be used to create a vaccine.
B) has changed its antigens to avoid an adaptive immune response.
C) is more virulent than the regular strains and may cause septic shock.
D) is an extracellular pathogen that will be cleared by innate immunity.

Question 50

What are the primary chemical mediators released from mast cells during a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A) antibodies
B) interleukin I and tumor necrosis factor
C) histamine and serotonin
D) cytokines

Question 51

Why are secondary or "booster" reimmunizations given?

A) Secondary immunizations are necessary for an innate immune response.
B) Secondary reimmunizations produce a secondary immune response and boost antibody titers.
C) Secondary reimmunizations produce a phagocytic immune response that is longer lasting than the primary immune response.
D) Frequent secondary reimmunizations are needed because the immune system doesn't remember antigens for more than a few years.

Question 52

In adaptive immunity,pathogen specific receptors are produced in large numbers only after exposure to the pathogen or its products.

Question 53

What is the drawback of live attenuated vaccines?

A) They require more secondary reimmunizations than other vaccines.
B) They are not effective in adults.
C) They do NOT provide a long-lasting secondary immune response.
D) They can cause disease in some immunocompromised individuals.

Question 54

People with aggamaglobulinemia do not make protective antibodies and suffer from recurrent,life threatening viral infections,but can develop normal immune responses to bacteria.

Question 55

TH₂ cells interact directly with the pathogens.

Question 56

Which of the following is NOT an autoimmune disease?

A) systemic lupus erythematosus
B) anaphylaxis
C) juvenile diabetes
D) multiple sclerosis

Question 57

All gram-negative bacteria have lipopolysaccharides in their outer membranes.

Question 58

Dendritic cells are phagocytes with antigen-presenting properties.

Question 59

Which of the following can be used in creating a vaccine?

A) attenuated bacteria
B) inactivated viruses
C) recombinant proteins
D) attenuated bacteria, inactivated viruses, or recombinant proteins

Question 60

Blood serum contains cells and clotting proteins.

Question 61

Men are 20 times more likely to develop systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)than women.

Question 62

DNA vaccines are bacterial plasmids that contain cloned DNA with an antigen of interest are unlike attenuated vaccines because there is no chance of causing disease.

Question 63

Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes produce exotoxins known as superantigens that bind to a site on the TCR that is outside the antigen-specific TCR binding site.

Question 64

How do phagocytes interact speedily and effectively with pathogens?

Question 65

Antihistamines are used to treat some allergic symptoms because they neutralize the histamine mediators that cause rapid dilation of blood vessels and contraction of smooth muscles that initiate the symptoms of systemic anaphylaxis.

Question 66

Compare and contrast the origin and roles of B cells and T cells.

Question 67

A recombinant-vector virus would still be effective if the vaccinia virus is unable to express the cloned gene as an antigenic protein.

Question 68

Symptoms of delayed-type hypersensitivity may appear several hours to days after secondary exposure to the eliciting antigen.

Question 69

Infants acquire natural passive immunity from maternal antibodies transferred across the placenta or in breast milk.

Question 70

What is antigen presentation? Why is antigen presentation important for long-term immunity?

Question 71

Individuals with severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID)have a genetic defect that prevents proper formation and expression of immunoglobins and T cells and therefore do not have adaptive immunity.

Question 72

Differentiate between T-cytotoxic (TC)cells and T-helper (TH)cells.

Question 73

An individual can receive injections of an antiserum or purified antibodies derived from an immune individual.

Question 74

How does the body respond when it first encounters a foreign particle or bacterial pathogen?

Question 75

Vaccines can be developed from synthetic peptides.

Question 76

What is tolerance,and why must the adaptive immune system exhibit tolerance?

Question 77

Superantigens activate more T cells than a normal immune response.

Question 78

Explain why an individual lymphocyte clone that interacts with a specific LPS constituent of Salmonella will not react with the LPS of other bacteria.

Question 79

Phagocytes interact speedily and effectively with pathogens because they have evolved specialized molecules called pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)that interact directly with PAMPs.

Question 80

A toxoid is an attenuated form of a toxin that retains both its antigenicity and toxicity.