Deck 38: Assisting in Dermatology

Question 1

Scratch allergy testing is limited to no more than 20 allergens because of the danger of an anaphylactic reaction.

Answer 1

False

Question 2

Skin testing on young children is typically done on both forearms.

Answer 2

False

Question 3

Patients should remain in the office for at least 15 minutes after the completion of skin testing for observation for adverse reactions to the procedure.

Answer 3

False

Question 4

Patients with metastases have distant spread of a cancerous tumor.

Question 5

A patient scheduled for allergy skin tests should continue to take prescription antihistamines before the procedure to limit a dangerous allergic reaction.

Question 6

In cryosurgery, extremely hot temperatures are used to destroy the treated tissue.

Question 7

Grading of a tumor requires a pathologic assessment of the level of cellular differentiation.

Question 8

A patient experiencing an exacerbation of disease symptoms is finally cycling through a period of relief from the most challenging symptoms of the disease.

Question 9

Keratin is a protective protein found in the dermal layer of the skin.

Question 10

A disease that is idiopathic has a well-defined and easily diagnosed cause.

Question 11

A benign tumor shows anaplastic changes.

Question 12

A patient with vitiligo has a problem with uniform skin pigmentation.

Question 13

A patient with psoriasis who is in remission has the disease but is currently not experiencing the signs and symptoms associated with it.

Question 14

The RAST test can be used to verify the presence of an allergic response to test allergens.

Question 15

Chemical exfoliation may cause an increased level of photophobia.

Question 16

A wheal forming at the site of a skin test indicates an allergic reaction to the serum.

Question 17

An autoimmune reaction protects the body's tissues from an attack by the individual's immune system.

Question 18

A child diagnosed with eczema frequently has excoriation at the site of the inflammation.

Question 19

The physician orders a series of diagnostic tests to determine the stage of the tumor.

Question 20

Benign tumors invade the basement membrane of surrounding tissues.

Question 21

A patient experiencing an exacerbation is also going through a relapse of signs and symptoms.

Question 22

Rhinophyma is a serious complication of rosacea that is due to hyperplasia of nasal tissue.

Question 23

Accutane is an effective treatment for acne conglobata, but it cannot be prescribed for adolescent males because of its powerful teratogenic effects.

Question 24

Only individuals with a history of chickenpox will develop herpes zoster.

Question 25

Anaerobic cultures are performed from exudate collected at the surface of a laceration.

Question 26

Streptococcal impetigo, if left untreated, may result in glomerulonephritis.

Question 27

The recommended treatment for scabies is Kwell.

Question 28

Botox is a neurotoxin that temporarily paralyzes the muscles of the face to reduce the appearance of wrinkles.

Question 29

As a person ages, the dermal layer becomes thinner and less protective.

Question 30

A fissure is an example of a primary lesion of the skin.

Question 31

Cryosurgery frequently is used to treat verrucae.

Question 32

Denavir is a topical antiviral used to treat cellulitis.

Question 33

Folliculitis may result in the development of a furuncle if the infection spreads.

Question 34

The National Cancer Institute recommends a sunscreen with an SPF of at least 30 for patients of all ages who are exposed to midday sun.

Question 35

Hand sanitization does not reduce the amount of resident flora on the skin.

Question 36

Repeated episodes of herpes simplex occur because the bacteria is able to lie dormant in a nearby nerve.

Question 37

A wound that heals well with little evidence of scar formation is called a keloid.

Question 38

A malignant melanoma typically develops at the site of a congenital nevus.

Question 39

Lamisil is an effective topical treatment for onychomycosis.

Question 40

Acne conglobata is a cystic form of acne that typically occurs in adolescent patients.

Question 41

One of the possible complications of a large, benign mass is metastasis.

Question 42

What is one of the principal functions of the subcutaneous layer of the skin?

A)It provides insulation for the body.
B)It produces oil to soften and protect the skin.
C)It houses the sweat glands that function as temperature regulators.
D)It synthesizes vitamin D.

Question 43

Which type of lesion is a sign of a partial-thickness burn?

A)Pustule
B)Bulla
C)Ulcer
D)Wheal

Question 44

Which of the following is not considered one of the three layers of the integumentary system?

A)Epidermis
B)Dermis
C)Hair papilla
D)Subcutaneous

Question 45

What major preventive action can patients take to prevent malignant neoplasms?

A)Use tanning beds rather than direct sun.
B)Use lotions with a high SPF.
C)Refrain from picking at acne lesions.
D)Avoid direct contact with infected individuals.

Question 46

Why is the dermal layer sometimes referred to as the "true skin"?

A)It is the outer layer that is visible to others.
B)It comprises the largest percentage of total skin mass.
C)It provides the body with protection from dehydration.
D)It contains the substance that gives the skin its distinctive color.

Question 47

Acceptable sites for skin testing include the anterior forearm, the upper arm, and the back.

Question 48

The presence of pseudopods indicates a positive reaction to allergen testing.

Question 49

The meaning of the word intradermal is:

A)"on the skin"
B)"under the skin"
C)"below the skin"
D)"within the skin"

Question 50

The part of the integumentary system that contains fat as a stored energy source is the:

A)sebaceous glands
B)epidermis
C)dermis
D)subcutaneous layer

Question 51

Individuals being treated for head lice must be retreated after 5 days to destroy any surviving lice and/or nits that have hatched.

Question 52

Which statement does not describe a result of a full-thickness burn?

A)Severe pain immediately after the injury
B)The need for skin grafting
C)The danger of infection
D)Damage to all skin layers

Question 53

Which highly contagious disorder is caused by streptococci and characterized by itchy vesicles and pustules?

A)Impetigo
B)Eczema
C)Scabies
D)Psoriasis

Question 54

A blister is called a:

A)macule
B)papule
C)bulla
D)pustule

Question 55

Which is not an appropriate action when treating frostbite?

A)Using a heat source of up to 105° F
B)Taking time to monitor vital signs periodically during treatment
C)Warming the area with an external, even heat source
D)Gently rubbing the affected area

Question 56

Which statement describes a major advantage of topical over systemic drugs?

A)They are less likely to cause side effects.
B)They provide relief more quickly.
C)They are less costly for the patient.
D)They are easier to administer.

Question 57

The medical term that means the "study of the skin" is:

A)dermatitis
B)dermatology
C)dermopathy
D)dermal

Question 58

When educating patients about the care of their skin, it is best to:

A)endorse particular product brands
B)make suggestions about cosmetics
C)refer them to outside sources, such as allergists and dieticians
D)emphasize preventive measures that help promote healthy skin

Question 59

Antipruritics would be useful in treating which of the following conditions?

A)Acne
B)Herpes zoster
C)Macules
D)Nail fungus

Question 60

When obtaining a exudate sample from a wound for culture, it is important not to:

A)remove too much exudate
B)irritate the wound by inserting the swab too deeply
C)use cotton swabs to collect the sample
D)all of the above

Question 61

A patient diagnosed with herpes simplex may be prescribed which of the following medications?

A)Prednisone
B)Valtrex
C)Bacitracin topical ung
D)Keflex

Question 62

Palliative treatment is prescribed to do which of the following?

A)Ease the symptoms of a condition.
B)Cure a disorder.
C)Prevent a disease from occurring.

Question 63

Which of the following is caused by an inflammation of the skin that is associated with an allergic response?

A)Systemic lupus erythematosus
B)Seborrhea
C)Psoriasis
D)Eczema

Question 64

A procedure in which revolving wire brushes or sandpaper is used to remove superficial scars is called:

A)exacerbation
B)dermabrasion
C)electrodessication
D)cryosurgery

Question 65

Redness of the skin is called:

A)cyanosis
B)jaundice
C)ecchymosis
D)erythema
E)pruritus

Question 66

Which of the following is true about the Mohs technique?

A)It increases the possibility of keloid formation.
B)It is recommended for the removal of severe acne scars.
C)It uses photothermolysis to remove pigmented areas.
D)It is used to remove cancerous skin lesions layer by layer to minimize the chance of regrowth.

Question 67

A freckle is called a:

A)macule
B)papule
C)bulla
D)pustule

Question 68

The medical term for a partial or complete lack of hair is __________.

Question 69

A patient with scabies may have which of the following signs of infestation?

A)Excoriation of surrounding tissue
B)Keloid formation at infestation sites
C)Furuncle development
D)Systemic erysipelas

Question 70

All of the following statements are true about herpes zoster except it:

A)can be prevented in adults over age 60 with Zostavax
B)can cause chronic pain
C)appears as a vesicular, erythemic, pruritic, papular rash
D)affects bilateral nerve dermatomes

Question 71

___________ causes a yellow discoloration of the skin.

A)Cyanosis
B)Jaundice
C)Ecchymosis
D)Erythema
E)Pruritus

Question 72

Which highly contagious disorder is caused by a parasite?

A)Impetigo
B)Eczema
C)Scabies
D)Psoriasis

Question 73

Zostavax is recommended for which of the following patients?

A)Infants 12 to 18 months old
B)Older adults who have never had shingles
C)All adults over age 60, regardless of whether they have had shingles
D)Any age group that has not had chickenpox

Question 74

A bluish coloration of the skin is called:

A)cyanosis
B)jaundice
C)ecchymosis
D)erythema
E)pruritus

Question 75

Tabitha Anderson is scheduled for skin testing next week.What is an important part of the preparation for this procedure?

A)The procedure should be performed before the physician gets to the office to see patients for the day.
B)The patient should continue to take antihistamines to prevent a serious response to allergens.
C)The patient should stop taking all antihistamines or allergy medication 3 to 10 days before testing.

Question 76

Mr.Gonzales is diagnosed with an autoimmune disorder of the integumentary system.What does this mean?

A)His immune system is no longer working to protect his skin from disease.
B)He has a contagious disease.
C)He inherited the disease from a parent.
D)His immune system is attacking his body's cells.

Question 77

Samantha Trace is diagnosed with tinea unguium.What term describes the condition of her nails?

A)Leukodermaon
B)Keratin
C)Opaque
D)Ecchymotic

Question 78

A bruise is also known as:

A)cyanosis
B)jaundice
C)ecchymosis
D)erythema
E)pruritus

Question 79

The medical term for itching is:

A)cyanosis
B)jaundice
C)ecchymosis
D)erythema
E)pruritus

Question 80

A raised lesion is called a:

A)macule
B)papule
C)fissure