Deck 2: Biology Genetics and Evolution

Question 1

When two alleles on the same gene are not identical, they are called heterozygous.​

Answer 1

True

Question 2

Humans are primates.​

Answer 2

True

Question 3

If two body cells merge in meiosis, the result is a cell with 46 pairs of chromosomes.​

Answer 3

False

Question 4

A bat's wing is analogous to a human hand.​

Question 5

Uniformitarianism is a more recent theory than catastrophism.​

Question 6

Evolution is the central organizing principle of the biological sciences.

Question 7

The complete sequence of human DNA is called the genome.​

Question 8

In the search for disease cures, scientists often predict an individual's genotype.​

Question 9

The existence of Homo sapiens as an interbreeding species is due to gene flow.​

Question 10

DNA provides the instruction for the thousands of proteins that keep us healthy every day.​

Question 11

Linnaeus's classificatory system reflected a new understanding of life on earth at that time.

Question 12

Founder effects are a kind of genetic drift.​

Question 13

Testing for DNA is the best way to determine those who form part of an individual's family.​

Question 14

Genes are particulate, meaning that they are separate structures rather than portions of DNA.​

Question 15

The only source of new genetic material is random drift.​

Question 16

Even prior to Darwin's publication, many European naturalists accepted the idea that life had evolved.​

Question 17

The "system of nature" is an approach to classify all of animate and inanimate nature.​

Question 18

Darwin could not initially understand how variation occurred in living organisms.​

Question 19

Mendel published his findings in a respectable scientific journal, but no one understood their significance until after his death.​

Question 20

Taxonomy is an ancient form of classification created by Linnaeus that is no longer used today.​

Question 21

Which of the following is the smallest working unit in biological classification?​

A)​phylum
B)​mammal
C)​genus
D)​species

Question 22

Mammals have all of the following characteristics except:​

A)​They have body hair.
B)​They nurse their young.
C)​They do not give birth to live young.
D)​They include the primates.

Question 23

Linnaeus based his classificatory system on each of the following except:​

A)​sequence of bodily growth
B)​body structure
C)​body function
D)​body size

Question 24

In sickle-cell anemia, the individual does not produce any red blood cells.​

Question 25

Speciation always occurs quite rapidly.​

Question 26

All of the following are true of evolution except:​

A)​It provides an explanation for the diversity of life.
B)​It emphasizes human uniqueness and human origin.
C)​It utilizes hypotheses as a way of testing.
D)​It uses consistent scientific language.

Question 27

Which of the following describes the primary difference between creation stories and evolution?​

A)​Creation stories are particular to cultures, and evolution is bound by hypotheses and scientific language.
B)​Creation stories are cyclical in nature, and evolution is a linear theory.
C)​Evolution explains how things change, and creation stories do not change.
D)​Evolution is a Western theory, and creation stories are not found in the West.

Question 28

The comparison of the anatomical structures of wings on a bat to the wings on a butterfly is an example of:​

A)​homology
B)​taxonomy
C)​analogy
D)​phylogeny

Question 29

Ultimately, all natural selection is measured in terms of reproductive success.​

Question 30

Linnaeus noted the similarities among humans, monkeys, and apes and classified them as:​

A)​hominids
B)​primates
C)​anthropoids
D)​apes

Question 31

Homo describes a human:​

A)​order
B)​homology
C)​genus
D)​species

Question 32

How would you best describe a genus?​

A)​a group of like species
B)​a subdivision of species
C)​a subspecies
D)​archaic forms of species

Question 33

A reproductively isolated population or group capable of interbreeding to produce fertile offspring is a:​

A)​genus
B)​category
C)​family
D)​species

Question 34

Evolution can be described as:​

A)​an anti-creationist account of the origin of life
B)​the foundation of culture in contemporary society
C)​the major organizing principle of the biological sciences
D)​the major organizing principle of the social sciences

Question 35

Cladogenesis is a sustained directional shift in a population's gene pool.​

Question 36

Which of the following statements is false?​

A)​Evolution explains diversity through scientific language using hypotheses.
B)​Evolution explains diversity through scientific language using theories.
C)​Evolution can explain diversity, and creation myths cannot.
D)​Creation myths and evolutionary accounts do not differ in any substantial way.

Question 37

The comparison of the anatomical structures of a human arm to the wing of a bat is an example of:​

A)​homology
B)​taxonomy
C)​analogy
D)​phylogeny

Question 38

How do anthropologists classify the Nez Perce story about Coyote and Wishpoosh?​

A)​apocalyptic myth
B)​salvation myth
C)​children's myth
D)​creation myth

Question 39

Cultural processes complicate studies of biological adaptation.​

Question 40

Which scientist developed the Systema Naturae?​

A)​Aristotle
B)​Carolus Linnaeus
C)​Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
D)​Charles Darwin

Question 41

Who proposed that animal populations remained stable over time because of the high proportion of animal offspring not surviving to maturity?​

A)​Gregor Mendel
B)​Charles Darwin
C)​Thomas Malthus
D)​Charles Lyell

Question 42

Which of the following is not one of the four base pairs?​

A)​glucosamine
B)​cytosine
C)​adenine
D)​thymine

Question 43

Invoking natural events, such as the great flood in the Book of Genesis, to account for species disappearance is an example of:​

A)​exploitation
B)​system of nature
C)​Great Chain of Being
D)​catastrophism

Question 44

Alleles are:​

A)​the cell nucleus
B)​structures that carry specific proteins
C)​alternate forms of a single gene
D)​pieces of DNA

Question 45

A portion of the DNA molecule containing a sequence of base pairs that encodes a particular protein is known as a:​

A)​gene
B)​allele
C)​double helix
D)​chromosome

Question 46

Darwin's theory was known as the theory of:​

A)​natural selection
B)​natural variation
C)​animal evolution
D)​circumnavigation

Question 47

Whose research developed the basic laws of heredity?​

A)​Gregor Mendel
B)​Charles Lyell
C)​Thomas Malthus
D)​Charles Darwin

Question 48

Proteins are significant to the life of the organism in various ways. Those that initiate and direct chemical reactions are called:​

A)​enzymes
B)​protons
C)​codons
D)​ribosomes

Question 49

In protein synthesis, all of the following are involved except:​

A)​RNA
B)​ribosomes
C)​codon
D)​fovea centralis

Question 50

Which of the following terms best describes the 3 billion chemical bases with 20,000 to 25,000 genes that define humans?​

A)​ribosome
B)​genome
C)​enzyme
D)​transcription

Question 51

Of the following, which is the widest (most broad and inclusive) taxonomic category?​

A)​family
B)​order
C)​phylum
D)​species

Question 52

The process of transcription is related to:​

A)​the conversion of DNA into a protein
B)​the division of cells in a sister chromatid
C)​the replication of cells in segregation
D)​mutation events in reproduction

Question 53

Sex cell division is called:​

A)​independent assortment
B)​segregation
C)​meiosis
D)​mitosis

Question 54

The principle that variants of genes for a particular trait retain their separate identities through the generations is called:​

A)​natural selection
B)​law of segregation
C)​law of heredity
D)​law of independent assortment

Question 55

The theory that maintains that although some changes in the earth's surface are immediately observable and caused by erosion and other natural processes, other changes are caused by gradual processes over extremely long periods of time is called:​

A)​natural selection
B)​catastrophism
C)​linearism
D)​uniformitarianism

Question 56

Cell division that involves exact replication of parent cells is called:​

A)​mitosis
B)​mitochondriosis
C)​meiosis
D)​cloning

Question 57

Cell division begins when chromosomal DNA replicates and each chromosome becomes a pair of:​

A)​nuclei
B)​sister chromatids
C)​mother chromatids
D)​eukaryotes

Question 58

What was scientific about Gregor Mendel's approach to gardening?​

A)​He was a scientist and worked to create commercial plants.
B)​He took systematic notes and was able to identify patterns of heredity.
C)​He bred garden plants to obtain higher yields.
D)​He worked to breed garden plants to obtain better varieties.

Question 59

Mendel discovered that inheritance was particulate, not:​

A)​blended
B)​separated
C)​molded
D)​selected

Question 60

Today, Darwin's evolutionary theory is supported by data from all of the following except:​

A)​population genetics
B)​heredity
C)​molecular genetics
D)​protogenetics

Question 61

Which evolutionary force keeps populations from developing into separate species?​

A)​founder effects
B)​mutation
C)​random genetic drift
D)​gene flow

Question 62

Founder effects is a type of:​

A)​gene flow
B)​genetic drift
C)​natural selection
D)​environmental selection

Question 63

A painful disease in which oxygen-carrying red blood cells change into abnormal shapes is called:​

A)​anemia
B)​natural blood selection
C)​trisomy 21
D)​sickle-cell anemia

Question 64

The chimp's genome is estimated to be what percentage larger than the human's?​

A)​50
B)​75
C)​10
D)​25

Question 65

The biological term fitness refers to:​

A)​physical and mental prowess
B)​physical stamina and longevity
C)​reproductive potential
D)​stabilizing influences

Question 66

During meiosis, genes are divided into:​

A)​two new cells
B)​four new cells
C)​six new cells
D)​eight new cells

Question 67

Because type O blood is codominant, a woman with type O blood knows that OO is her:​

A)​DNA
B)​genome
C)​phenotype
D)​genotype

Question 68

Interbreeding allows for:​

A)​gene flow
B)​genetic drift
C)​genetic cloning
D)​genetic testing

Question 69

If a young man has type A blood, this is his:​

A)​DNA
B)​genome
C)​phenotype
D)​genotype

Question 70

A small group of people with several color-blind individuals moves from the mainland to a previously uninhabited, secluded island. Two hundred years later, 5 percent of the people of the island have color-blindness. This is an example of:​

A)​founder effects
B)​population bottleneck
C)​mutation
D)​gene flow

Question 71

Ultimately all natural selection is biologically measured in terms of:​

A)​reproductive success
B)​environmental adaptation
C)​macroevolution
D)​random genetic frequency

Question 72

In the "Biocultural Connection," why did the U.S. government support using DNA tests at the Dadaab refugee camp in Nairobi, Kenya?​

A)​to test individuals for basic health and determine carriers of disease
B)​to test asylum seekers to determine whether they were related to a U.S.citizen
C)​to test families to see if they were legitimate refugees in the U.S.facility there
D)​to test whether any of those seeking asylum has originated in the United States

Question 73

What deficiencies were revealed in the DNA testing protocol among refugees in the Dadaab refugee camp in Nairobi, Kenya?​

A)​Family relationship is not solely constituted by biology.
B)​Families did not always carry the same types of genetic markers.
C)​Families did not understand why DNA was needed and often refused.
D)​Families did not want to live with relatives in the United States.

Question 74

What variable force is most important to adaptation over time?​

A)​founder effects
B)​genetic drift
C)​random mutation
D)​gene flow

Question 75

All of the following are evolutionary forces except:​

A)​genetic drift
B)​gene flow
C)​genetic cloning
D)​mutation

Question 76

Adaptation can best be described as:​

A)​an inherited form of anemia caused by a mutation
B)​dominant characteristics in the gene pool
C)​a series of beneficial adjustments to the environment
D)​the introduction of alleles from the gene pool of a nonnative population

Question 77

Chimpanzees and humans share what percentage of DNA similarity?​

A)​90
B)​95
C)​97
D)​98

Question 78

In evolutionary terms, what kind of force is mutation?​

A)​It is negative because mutation decreases chances for survival.
B)​It is positive because it provides variation for selection.
C)​It is neutral because variation does not matter in the long run.
D)​Mutation cannot be evaluated in these terms.

Question 79

Which of the following best describes polygenetic inheritance?​

A)​An individual receives multiple alleles from more than two parents.
B)​Characteristics resulting from polygenetic inheritance exhibit a wide variation in genotypic expression.
C)​Characteristics resulting from polygenetic inheritance exhibit a wide variation in phenotypic expression.
D)​Characteristics most commonly result in mutation.

Question 80

Chance fluctuations of allele frequencies in the gene pool of a population are evidences of:​

A)​genetic drift
B)​gene flow
C)​mutation
D)​directional selection