Deck 6: Selection of Human Resources

Question 1

The director of HR realizes that the KSAs currently used for hiring entry-level engineers are outdated. Which of the following is the tool that will enable the director to establish which KSAs are needed?

A)performance appraisal analysis
B)test validation
C)job analysis
D)selection requirements study

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Volta Ltd. is planning to fill a number of openings for entry-level professionals. The selection process is quite extensive and includes several levels of individual interviews, team interviews, and psychological tests as well as general ability tests. Much of the interview time will focus on the applicant's philosophy of life and work. Which of the following does Volta seem to be highly concerned about?

A)achieving person-organization fit
B)defining who is an applicant
C)matching people to the jobs
D)complying with employment equity requirements

Answer 2

A

Question 3

There are several statistical methodologies for measuring reliability. Which of these options is a methodology that has the advantage of saving time and money, and possibly speeding up the selection process?

A)alternate forms
B)internal consistency
C)test-retest
D)multiple hurdles

Answer 3

B

Question 4

For which kinds of positions are HR staff LEAST likely to make the final hiring decisions?

A)administrative and clerical
B)executive
C)supervisory
D)entry-level

Question 5

Which of the following identifies a situation that shows the measuring of criterion-related validity?

A)when an employer uses a test as a predictor of job performance
B)when applicants' test results are compared with subsequent job performance
C)when an employer tests current employees and correlates the scores with their performance ratings
D)when a logical, non-statistical method is used to identify characteristics necessary to perform the job

Question 6

Which of the following is NOT an issue pertaining to the use of predictive validity?

A)A time gap exists between the test and the measured performance.
B)Employees who have performed poorly have probably left the firm and cannot be tested.
C)It is not useful in many situations.
D)A large number of people is required.

Question 7

When an organization needs to fill jobs, it engages in choosing individuals who have the essential qualifications. Which of the following terms is used to describe this process?

A)recruitment
B)placement
C)hiring
D)selection

Question 8

Germaine applied for an opening at Rotary Propulsion Systems (RPS) in May and took the company's aptitude test for entry-level management jobs. After a second interview in September, she took the aptitude test again. Germaine's scores differed significantly between May and September. Which of the following statements sums up what this discrepancy indicates about the test?

A)It may be invalid.
B)It is statistical
C)It may be dysfunctional.
D)It may be unreliable.

Question 9

Job candidates come to understand the organizational realities of a job, which enables them to put their job expectations accurately in context. Which of the following is the name of this process?

A)job orientation
B)practical overview initiation
C)accurate structured interview
D)realistic job preview

Question 10

In selection, which of the following does validity refer to?

A)strength of the correlation between a test score and a predictor
B)reliability with which the predictor tests the desired construct
C)correlation between a predictor and job performance
D)applicant achieving similar scores in a test-retest situation

Question 11

A test can have a certain kind of validity if it is based on work done on the job in question. Which type of validity would this be?

A)predictive
B)content
C)concurrent
D)criterion-related

Question 12

In a typical division of HR responsibilities for selection, which of the following will the HR unit do?

A)Requisition employees with specific qualifications.
B)Make the final selection decision.
C)Obtain background and reference information.
D)Interview final candidates.

Question 13

Which of the following best indicates how the placement of human resources should be seen?

A)as a matching process
B)as a public relations activity
C)as an operating management responsibility
D)as a tool for employment equity compliance

Question 14

Which of the following statements can be supported by a review of research on realistic job previews (RJPs)?

A)RJPs have little if any effect on employee turnover.
B)RJPs help lessen employee disenchantment and ultimately dissatisfaction and turnover.
C)RJPs reduce turnover in moderately stressful jobs, but not in highly stressful jobs.
D)RJPs increase organizational commitment and employee morale.

Question 15

Two versions of a test produce similar results. Which of the following terms refers to the degree that the tests do this?

A)internal consistency
B)test-retest
C)alternate forms
D)validity

Question 16

Fitting a person to the right job is an HR focus. What is this activity the definition of?

A)placement
B)selection
C)staffing
D)orientation

Question 17

One desired test characteristic pertains to how consistent the measurement of something is. Which of the following terms is applicable?

A)validity
B)accuracy
C)reliability
D)predictability

Question 18

In the context of staffing, what are ability, intelligence, and conscientiousness examples of?

A)employability factors
B)job performance elements
C)predictors of selection criteria
D)selection criteria

Question 19

Which of the following terms is used to describe a personal characteristic that is essential to doing a job successfully?

A)selection criterion
B)predictor
C)essential element
D)personality attribute

Question 20

Selection criteria are tied to identifying measurable indicators. What are these indicators usually called?

A)predictors
B)essential elements
C)performance standards
D)validators

Question 21

Which of the following pieces of information can an employer NOT legally ask for on employment application forms?

A)hours/days of availability
B)contact in case of emergency
C)legal eligibility to work in Canada
D)highest grade or level of training/education completed

Question 22

Which of the following personality traits predicts success in jobs requiring social interaction, such as many sales jobs?

A)openness to experience
B)conscientiousness
C)extroversion
D)emotional stability

Question 23

A job candidate is given an "in basket" test. Which kind of test does this exemplify?

A)work sample
B)physical ability
C)psychomotor
D)psychological

Question 24

Which of the following is the purpose of pre-employment screening?

A)to obtain information for an EEO report
B)to encourage potential job candidates to complete application forms
C)to determine whether applicants have at least the minimum qualifications for open jobs
D)to provide a realistic job preview and discourage potential applicants who would be dissatisfied with the job

Question 25

Which of the following identifies what the job application form provides at its most fundamental?

A)the initial record for the organization's employment equity plans
B)a basic employee record for applicants who are eventually hired
C)a defence in a discrimination case
D)a record of the employer's desire to hire someone for an open position

Question 26

The recruiter for West Photo Supply is scanning a résumé. The individual, a woman, is highly qualified for the position that West Photo has open. The position requires two weeks of travel per month. The résumé has a section headed "Hobbies and Activities." Here, the individual lists membership in a club called "Parents of Multiples," an organization for parents who have twins and other multiple-birth children. Which of the following statements outlines an appropriate legal perspective for the recruiter?

A)The recruiter can handle this résumé however he sees fit because women are not a protected class for employers who are not government contractors.
B)The recruiter can simply ignore this résumé because legally, résumés are not considered "applications."
C)The recruiter cannot legally use this information in making a selection decision.
D)The recruiter can discard the application because the individual included illegal information on her résumé..

Question 27

Which statement best sums up the use of honesty/integrity tests?

A)They are viewed by applicants as valid job tests.
B)They can be used as the sole pre-screening device to eliminate applicants at an early stage of selection in a retail or financial organization.
C)They are illegal under the Employee Polygraph Protection Act.
D)They have high "fakability."

Question 28

The recruiter interviewing for customer service telephone representatives tells the applicants that many of the callers are upset and angry, and that some will even use offensive language when speaking with representatives. The recruiter also informs the applicants that representatives must be polite, helpful, and professional in dealing with all callers, and that their calls are monitored by a supervisor. They work in a windowless cubicle in a room holding 100 other customer service representatives. The applicants are allowed to listen to a selection of pre-recorded calls and shown the room in which representatives work. What is this an example of?

A)a realistic job preview
B)a situational interview
C)pre-employment screening
D)the multiple hurdles selection technique

Question 29

Through which of the following means would an employer obtain more information on a job candidate and clarify information already gathered?

A)selection interview
B)personality test
C)reference check
D)application form

Question 30

A vendor of an electronic applicant tracking system has called on the director of HR at Shoreline Resorts, Ltd. The director of HR realizes the system would be a significant expense and is weighing the reasons why Shoreline Resorts may find this a cost-effective investment. Which of the following ideas works against making the investment?

A)Shoreline Resorts needs to hire from a local labour market.
B)Shoreline Resorts has a high volume of applicants.
C)Shoreline Resorts currently pays too high a cost for hiring.
D)Shoreline Resorts should shorten its hiring cycles.

Question 31

Three of the following are physical abilities employers might want to measure. Which is NOT?

A)endurance
B)spatial orientation
C)strength
D)mobility

Question 32

Trent has just become a recruiter for Starshine Products Ltd. In examining the existing applicant selection tests that Starshine uses, Trent comes across some tests he has not used in other organizations. Which of the following may be worth adopting?

A)genetic testing
B)psychic screening
C)psychomotor testing
D)graphology analysis

Question 33

Candidates do a series of evaluative exercises and tests as part of a process used for selection and development. They are also evaluated by a panel of trained raters. Which of the following terms applies this type of testing?

A)multi-faceted selection process
B)work simulation
C)assessment centre
D)career potential evaluation

Question 34

Which of the following "Big Five" personality traits is related to job success across most organizations and occupations?

A)openness to experience
B)stability
C)extroversion
D)conscientiousness

Question 35

Which of the following topics is NOT covered under disclaimers and notices on application forms?

A)Privacy Act protection
B)reference contacts
C)employment testing
D)bondability

Question 36

Which of the following areas is NOT covered by employers in pre-employment screening?

A)educational attainment
B)job location
C)applicants' pay expectations
D)types of available jobs

Question 37

Which of the following makes the most accurate statement about personality tests?

A)Personality tests are rarely used as a selection device today because of applicant objections to invasion of privacy.
B)In order to be legal, personality tests must be solidly linked to the job.
C)Personality tests cannot predict long-term job success.
D)The Big Five personality traits each predict job success across most occupations.

Question 38

When applying for a job as a history instructor at local college, Catherine was required to teach a class of first-year students on a history topic of her choosing. What is this is an example of?

A)hands-on experience
B)cognitive ability test
C)behavioural interview
D)work sample

Question 39

Which of the following measures dexterity, hand-eye coordination, arm-hand steadiness, and other factors?

A)psychomotor tests
B)aptitude tests
C)cognitive ability tests
D)work sample tests

Question 40

When Kevin applied for a job with a firm providing security to high-profile individuals, he was given a test for visual memory. Which of the following is the best classification for this test?

A)psychological type
B)cognitive ability
C)psychomotor ability
D)"hardiness" and ability to function in a high-stress job

Question 41

In her interview for a position as a bartender at an upscale hotel bar, Megan was asked, "What would you do if one of the customers started slurring her words and making off-colour jokes that other customers in the bar could hear?" Which type of interview did Megan have?

A)behavioural
B)non-directive
C)stress
D)situational

Question 42

Kent and Julie are both recruiters for Sunspree Products. When Kent and Julie interview the same applicant, they often find they have different opinions about the applicant's potential as a future high performer for Sunspree. Which of these are Kent and Julie demonstrating?

A)low inter-rater validity
B)high inter-rater validity
C)low inter-rater reliability
D)high inter-rater reliability

Question 43

Which of the following statements characterizes a structured job interview?

A)All candidates are asked a set of standardized questions.
B)Each candidate appears before a panel of interviewers.
C)Each candidate responds to questions designed to address all Big Five personality traits.
D)All candidates meet with the same interviewer.

Question 44

Which of the following is the main legal reason for doing a thorough background check of all applicants?

A)the ability to show due diligence in hiring
B)non-discrimination against protected classes
C)the avoidance of résumé fraud
D)human rights compliance

Question 45

Sometimes, interviewers make a decision on how suitable an applicant is for a job within the first few minutes of the interview and spend the balance of the interview looking for evidence to support it. Which of the following terms is used to describe this problem?

A)cultural noise
B)halo effect
C)snap judgments
D)premature closure

Question 46

At a job interview an applicant was asked the following: "How did you handle a situation where there were no rules or guidelines for employee discipline?" Which type of interview was it?

A)stress
B)non-directive
C)behavioural
D)biographical

Question 47

An interviewer repeatedly picks the same capabilities across different applicants. What is this pattern called?

A)inter-rater reliability
B)rater experience
C)intra-rater validity
D)predictor correlation

Question 48

Consider this question: "How do you like working with other people?" Which of the following is it an example of?

A)an obvious question
B)a self-evident question
C)a question that rarely produces a true answer
D)a leading question

Question 49

Several people interview a candidate at the same time. Which of the following best describes the nature of the interview?

A)video
B)group
C)mass
D)panel

Question 50

When it comes to team interviews, which of the following practices should be avoided?

A)training team members in the selection process
B)involving team members in selecting their co-workers to increase team successfulness
C)using a specialized test in combination with a team interview to increase the chance of picking a team player
D)having team members vote for their top choice in the selection decision

Question 51

Clarence is selecting questions for a structured interview he is designing. He wants to ask each candidate a question or two that will tap the applicant's motivation. Which of the following draft questions should Clarence avoid asking?

A)What projects get you excited?
B)How do you measure success?
C)What difficult problem have you faced and solved?
D)What career objectives have you met?

Question 52

Anthony was interviewing an applicant to be a volunteer docent (instructor and tour guide) for a large art museum. The applicant began to discuss her interest in introducing young children to museum-quality art. Anthony followed up with several questions about how young children react to art, why she felt early exposure to art was important, and how she would design situations for children to experience art. Which type of interview was Anthony conducting?

A)non-directive
B)structured
C)situational
D)probing

Question 53

Which of the following recommendations is NOT a key point in effective interviewing?

A)Plan the interview by reviewing all related documents.
B)Use effective questioning techniques.
C)Write down all comments made to and by the applicant.
D)Let the candidate speak freely.

Question 54

In one interviewing approach, the employer takes a high risk. Which of the following is being conducted?

A)a stress interview
B)a situational interview
C)a non-directive interview
D)a biographical interview

Question 55

Interviewers may tend to favour or select applicants they consider much like themselves. If so, which of the following is occurring?

A)bias
B)halo effect
C)stereotyping
D)negative emphasis

Question 56

Research has identified the biggest factor affecting interviewers' decisions about an applicant's overall suitability. Which of the following factors is it?

A)the background investigation report
B)job-related KSAs
C)the applicant's prior work experience
D)unfavourable information about the applicant

Question 57

Which of the following is most recognized as a disadvantage of using video interviewing?

A)Video interviews give applicants an impression that the company is a cold and unattractive place to work.
B)Face-to-face interviews are more reliable and valid than video interviewing.
C)Applicants are sceptical about video interviews.
D)The cost of video-conferencing equipment makes this technique too expensive.

Question 58

When interviewing an applicant for a position as financial director of the city's symphony orchestra, the recruiter is overwhelmed by the fact that the applicant was a professional musician with a prestigious European orchestra for 10 years. Which of the following is the phenomenon the recruiter is suffering from?

A)dominant trait error
B)similarity bias
C)favourable emphasis
D)halo effect

Question 59

An effective interviewer speaks only so much during the interview. Which of the following most closely indicates the amount of time?

A)25 percent
B)50 percent
C)75 percent
D)0 percent

Question 60

According to research, which of the following kinds of interviews has consistently proven to be the most reliable and valid ?

A)the biographical interview
B)the intuitive interview
C)the non-directive interview
D)the structured interview

Question 61

Recent legal decisions suggest that drug testing is acceptable in several work-related situations, but not all. In which of the following contexts is drug testing unlikely to be approved?

A)as part of an investigation in a post-accident situation
B)as a condition of certification to a higher safety-risk position
C)as a pre-employment test for all applicants
D)as a condition of return to duty after a policy violation

Question 62

Which of the following statements explains how the compensatory approach combines predictors?

A)A minimum cutoff is set on each predictor.
B)A higher score on one predictor offsets a lower score on another.
C)Predictor scores for all test takers are averaged to establish cutoffs.
D)Multiple hurdles are set to compensate for the different predictors.

Question 63

Under certain conditions, the subjective approach to making a selection decision may be adopted. Which of the following is NOT one of those conditions?

A)little HR expertise
B)confidence in the decision maker's intuition
C)few resources
D)quick resolution desired

Question 64

Lawyers frequently advise employers to limit the information they provide about former employees. Which of the following details should employers think about withholding?

A)employment date
B)name
C)reason for termination
D)title

Question 65

When operating managers are allowed to select their own staff, the effectiveness of the selection process is enhanced.

Question 66

For the position of firefighter, the physical requirements are the abilities to carry 70 kg 180 m, climb a 25 m ladder in 1 minute in full gear, hear verbal commands in a normal speaking voice, and see with 20/20 vision. Mark is hearing-impaired in both ears even with hearing aids. Mark was not hired as a firefighter, even though he passed all the remaining physical and other requirements. Which of the following has he experienced?

A)the multiple hurdles approach to selection
B)the compensatory approach to performance predictors
C)discrimination under human rights acts
D)person-organization mismatch

Question 67

Which of the following is an example of a host-country national?

A)a Canadian citizen working in Canada and employed by an organization headquartered in France
B)a Canadian citizen working in China and employed by an organization headquartered in the United States
C)a Canadian citizen working in China and employed by a Canadian company
D)a Canadian citizen working in Canada and employed by a Canadian company

Question 68

The job offer document

A)does not need to provide for individuals to sign an acceptance of the offer.
B)does not need to be reviewed by legal counsel.
C)should clearly identify terms and conditions of employment.
D)should include general statements about areas such as bonuses and work schedules that might change later.

Question 69

A high rate of failure is associated with overseas managers. Which of the following is the major HR issue concerning this?

A)placement and other associated costs
B)difficulty of recruiting managers who are willing to take overseas assignments
C)loss of continuity in overseas operations
D)need to hire host-country nationals rather than Canadian expatriates

Question 70

If done properly, job analysis can provide the basis for identifying KSAs needed in a job.

Question 71

Which of the following is the basis for calculating the failure rate for managers sent overseas?

A)the profitability of the foreign operation the manager is heading
B)how well or poorly the manager adapts to the foreign culture
C)whether the manager fails to be promoted upon returning from the assignment
D)whether the manager quits or insists on a transfer back

Question 72

If a worker commits violent acts on the job, for which of the following may an employer be sued?

A)occupational health and safety violations
B)criminal mischief
C)employment malfeasance
D)negligent hiring

Question 73

Some pieces of information are more subject to being falsified than others. Which of the following pieces are applicants LEAST likely to lie about?

A)length of prior employment
B)job duties
C)educational attainment
D)past salary

Question 74

Henry is a Canadian citizen who works for a Dutch company. His current assignment is in Honduras. In terms of global employees, what is Henry?

A)a third-country national
B)an expatriate
C)a first-world national
D)a host-country national

Question 75

In one approach to hiring, a minimum cutoff is set on each predictor, and the applicant must reach at least each minimum level. Which of the following is the name of this approach?

A)multiple hurdles
B)test validity
C)single predictor
D)combined

Question 76

"Humph," says the director of HR to herself as she looks at a sheaf of documents related to an applicant she is seriously thinking about hiring. "These aren't worth the time to read. Let's see what else is in this file." Which of the following documents is the HR director most likely to view as being of little value in making her selection decision?

A)law enforcement reports
B)credit history analyses
C)letters from former supervisors
D)personal references

Question 77

Andrew, the director of Global HR, is in a gloomy mood. He is trying to place a manager in an overseas assignment, and the third person to whom he has offered the position has refused it. Andrew takes little comfort in the fact that each person gave the same reason for turning down the position. Which of the following is the probable reason?

A)reduction in real income that occurs with overseas transfers
B)reluctance to be away from Canada for most of three years
C)effect of the move on family and spouse
D)cost of transferring overseas

Question 78

Applicants frequently misrepresent their qualifications and backgrounds. As surveys have shown, which of the following areas is the most likely to contain false information?

A)marital and family situation
B)academic credentials
C)length of prior employment
D)credit history

Question 79

Which of the following statements pertaining to background information is FALSE?

A)Criminal records can be obtained only if they are job related.
B)A social insurance number can be obtained at the interview stage, if needed.
C)Professional certification or licences can be obtained at the interview stage, if needed.
D)Drug tests can be obtained once the conditional offer of employment has been made.

Question 80

Which of the following characteristics is a key personal one for success in an overseas assignment?

A)task-centredness
B)ambiguity tolerance
C)introversion
D)emotional flexibility