Deck 10: The Blood

Question 1

About how many litres of blood are in the human body

A)2 L
B)5 L
C)10 L
D)12 L

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Which of the following is NOT found within erythrocytes

A)carbonic anhydrase
B)glycolytic enzyme
C)haemoglobin
D)mitochondria

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Which of the following does NOT apply to plasma proteins

A)They are responsible for blood colloid osmotic pressure.
B)They provide a source of readily available amino acids to be utilized by the tissue cells for the synthesis of new tissue proteins.
C)Some play a role in the body's defence mechanism.
D)They play a role in buffering changes in pH in the body fluids.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Which of these statements does NOT describe iron

A)It is found in the heme portion of the haemoglobin molecule.
B)It is converted into bilirubin upon erythrocyte degradation.
C)It readily combines reversibly with O₂.
D)Diets deficient in it can lead to anaemia.

Question 5

If the haematocrit is 40, then which of the following volumes is represented correctly

A)Red blood cells comprise 60 percent of the total blood volume.
B)White blood cells comprise 40 percent of the total blood volume.
C)Red blood cells comprise 40 percent of the total blood volume.
D)Plasma and cellular elements other than red blood cells comprise 40 percent of the total blood volume.

Question 6

Why is it important that the biconcavity of the erythrocyte increases the overall surface area

A)It prevents osmolarity changes.
B)It increases the rate of gas exchange across the membrane.
C)It provides an additional area for endocytosis.
D)It encourages cellular respiration.

Question 7

What advantages does the biconcavity of the erythrocyte impart on the cell

A)It increases the overall surface area.
B)It decreases the flexibility of the cell.
C)It prevents toxins from entering the cell.
D)It increases blood osmolarity.

Question 8

The buffy coat, which represents < 1 percent of whole blood, is comprised of _______________.

A)erythrocytes and platelets
B)leukocytes and platelets
C)leukocytes and clotting factors
D)platelets and clotting factors

Question 9

Which of these statements does NOT refer to antibodies

A)They are gamma globulins.
B)They are a type of plasma protein.
C)They are produced by T lymphocytes.
D)They originate from plasma cells.

Question 10

Which plasma globulins are the antibodies

A)alpha globulins
B)beta globulins
C)gamma globulins
D)delta globulins

Question 11

Albumin belongs to which of these groups in the blood plasma

A)hormones
B)electrolytes
C)proteins
D)gases

Question 12

Which of these statements describes haemoglobin

A)It is found in the nuclei of red blood cells.
B)It contains carbonic anhydrase.
C)It can combine with O₂, CO₂, H⁺, NO, and CO.
D)It can combine only with O₂ molecules.

Question 13

Which of these statements describes iron

A)It can combine reversibly with O₂.
B)Deficiency can lead to polycythaemia.
C)It is converted into bilirubin and secreted into the bile when old red blood cells rupture and are degraded.
D)It appears reddish when combined with CO₂.

Question 14

Blood is a connective tissue comprising cellular elements and an extracellular matrix of primarily water.What is the name of the blood's extracellular matrix

A)haematocrit
B)fibrinogen
C)buffy coat
D)plasma

Question 15

Which of these statements describes erythrocytes

A)They are large cells.
B)They participate in the clotting of blood.
C)They defend the body against foreign substances.
D)They possess binding sites for oxygen and CO₂.

Question 16

Which of these statements describes haemoglobin

A)It consists of a protein made up of four highly folded polypeptide chains and four iron-containing, non-protein, nitrogenous groups.
B)It appears reddish when combined with CO₂.
C)It can combine only with O₂ molecules.
D)It is found in the nuclei of red blood cells.

Question 17

What is the function of plasma albumins

A)to contribute in the clotting process
B)to maintain the body's defence system
C)to maintain the blood's osmotic pressure
D)to transport lipids

Question 18

Which of these statements describes erythrocytes

A)They contain many nuclei.
B)They survive an average of 150 days.
C)They do not have the ability to use O₂ for energy production despite the fact that they transport O₂ to all the other tissues of the body.
D)They are inflexible.

Question 19

The red cell count is normally about how many million cells per cubic millimetre

A)2 million/mm3
B)5 million/mm3
C)10 million/mm3
D)15 million/mm3

Question 20

Why do men have a higher haematocrit than women

A)greater blood flow to the kidney
B)larger muscle mass
C)growth hormone interactions with erythropoietin
D)higher blood pressure

Question 21

What is the most abundant type of cellular element in the blood

A)erythrocytes
B)neutrophils
C)leukocytes
D)lymphocytes

Question 22

Which of these statements describes type O blood

A)It has O red blood cell surface antigens.
B)It contains neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies.
C)It can receive any ABO blood type without risk of a transfusion reaction.
D)It does not have any A or B red blood cell surface antigens, and it contains both anti-A and anti-B antibodies.

Question 23

Which of these statements describes red blood cells

A)They carry oxygen.
B)They participate in the clotting of blood.
C)They defend the body against foreign substances.
D)They always have a nucleus.

Question 24

Which of these types of anaemia is caused by a genetic abnormality in the haemoglobin

A)pernicious
B)haemorrhagic
C)sickle-cell
D)megaloblastic

Question 25

Which of these organs produces the hormone that controls erythropoiesis

A)pancreas
B)brain
C)heart
D)kidney

Question 26

Which of these blood cellular elements lack nuclei

A)platelets and erythrocytes
B)leukocytes only
C)erythrocytes only
D)platelets only

Question 27

Which of the following condition(s) would NOT result in increased rates of erythropoiesis

A)high altitudes
B)increased physical activity
C)loss of blood
D)greater blood flow to the kidney

Question 28

Which of these statements describes erythropoiesis

A)It is accomplished in the bone marrow.
B)It is accomplished in the kidneys in response to reduced O₂ delivery to the kidneys.
C)It refers to increased RBC count.
D)It refers to excessive RBC destruction.

Question 29

Which of the following does NOT refer to blood doping

A)It is a technique used to temporarily increase the O₂-carrying capacity of the blood.
B)It is based on illicitly boosting the number of red blood cells in the circulatory system.
C)RBCs can be concentrated, frozen, and stored for months without damage.
D)The new form involving the hormone EPO is free of health hazards.

Question 30

Erythroblastosis fetalis can develop between a mother and fetus under which of these circumstances

A)Mother is Rh negative and fetus is Rh negative.
B)Mother is Rh neutral and fetus is Rh negative.
C)Mother is Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive.
D)Mother is Rh positive and fetus is Rh negative.

Question 31

If a type B-negative patient is accidentally given type A-positive blood, what will happen

A)Nothing will happen because this is a safe match.
B)The patient's antibodies will begin to attack the donated erythrocytes.
C)The patient's antigens will begin to attack the donated erythrocytes.
D)The donor's antigens will begin to attack the patient's antibodies.

Question 32

Which of these statements refers to erythropoietin

A)It is secreted by the bone marrow.
B)It stimulates red blood cell production.
C)It converts prothrombin to thrombin.
D)It is deficient in pernicious anaemia.

Question 33

Pernicious anaemia develops from a deficiency of which of the following

A)ATP
B)carbonic anhydrase
C)gastrin hormone
D)intrinsic factor

Question 34

Carbonic anhydrase is NOT crucial for which one of the following

A)CO₂ transport in blood
B)conversion of CO₂ into bicarbonate ion
C)production of NO
D)chemical buffer system

Question 35

Which example of a reticulocyte percentage among the erythrocytes in the circulation would indicate a high degree of erythropoiesis

A)0.5 percent
B)0.7 percent
C)1.2 percent
D)2.9 percent

Question 36

Which of these statement describes blood cells

A)They all originate in red bone marrow.
B)Red bone marrow is the primary source of all blood cells except mast cells and macrophages.
C)Most types of leukocytes appear in equal amounts in the blood.
D)Erythrocytes are produced in red marrow, while leukocytes are produced primarily in lymph nodes.

Question 37

What is the stimulus for increased secretion of erythropoietin

A)low oxygen levels in the bone marrow
B)low oxygen levels in the kidney
C)a hormone produced by the bone marrow
D)a hormone produced by the liver

Question 38

Which of the ABO blood groups has both A and B antibodies

A)A
B)AB
C)B
D)O

Question 39

Which of these statements does NOT describe erythrocytes

A)They do not contain any organelles.
B)They may take on many different shapes.
C)They originate from the same undifferentiated pluripotent stem cells as leukocytes and platelets.
D)They live only about five days.

Question 40

Which organ removes most of the worn-out red blood cells from the circulation

A)bone marrow
B)kidney
C)pancreas
D)spleen

Question 41

Which of these pairs are correctly matched

A)granular leukocytes; more numerous than agranular leukocytes per cubic millimetre
B)eosinophilia; bacterial infection
C)neutrophils; least numerous of the leukocytes per cubic millimetre
D)lymphocytes; granulocytes

Question 42

Which of these leukocyte types is implicated in certain allergic reactions, and attacks internal parasites such as worms

A)neutrophils
B)eosinophils
C)basophils
D)lymphocytes

Question 43

Which of these statements describes white blood cells

A)They are the most abundant type of blood cell.
B)They do not have nuclei.
C)They are actually only cell fragments.
D)They defend the body against foreign invasion.

Question 44

Which of the following leukocyte types did NOT arise from myeloid stem cells

A)neutrophils
B)eosinophils
C)basophils
D)lymphocytes

Question 45

Which of the following does neutrophilia frequently accompany

A)bacterial infection
B)viral infection
C)parasitic infestation
D)allergic condition

Question 46

Which of these cellular elements has the lowest count in the blood

A)platelets
B)neutrophils
C)erythrocytes
D)basophils

Question 47

Macrophages, the tissue phagocytes, are derived from which white blood cells

A)neutrophils
B)eosinophils
C)lymphocytes
D)monocytes

Question 48

Which of these statements refers to neutrophils

A)They are the most abundant type of white blood cell.
B)They attach to parasitic worms and secrete substances that kill them.
C)They are stimulated to replicate and be released from the lymphoid organs.
D)They are produced in response to erythropoietin.

Question 49

What form of polycythaemia occurs when an individual lives in a high-altitude environment

A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)relative

Question 50

An increase in the circulating number of which cell type is associated with parasite infestation

A)neutrophils
B)eosinophils
C)basophils
D)lymphocytes

Question 51

Which of the following is NOT a function of white blood cells

A)to activate factor XII, which triggers the clotting cascade
B)to produce antibodies
C)to destroy cancer cells
D)to phagocytize foreign invaders

Question 52

Which of these leukocytes contains histamine in its granules

A)neutrophils
B)eosinophils
C)basophils
D)lymphocytes

Question 53

Which of the following cell types is NOT a granulocyte

A)monocytes
B)eosinophils
C)basophils
D)neutrophils

Question 54

Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of anaemia

A)dietary deficiency of folic acid
B)deficiency of intrinsic factor
C)malaria
D)living at high altitude

Question 55

Which of these statements applies to aplastic anaemia

A)There is insufficient haemoglobin formation due to iron deficiency.
B)There is an acute loss of blood.
C)Destruction of the bone marrow has occurred, due possibly to toxic chemicals or radiation.
D)The stomach secretes inadequate intrinsic factor, which is essential for intestinal absorption of vitamin B₁₂.

Question 56

What is the most abundant agranulocyte in the blood

A)basophil
B)eosinophil
C)lymphocyte
D)monocyte

Question 57

Which of these statements refers to basophils

A)They contain granules that preferentially take up a basic blue dye.
B)They leave the blood to become macrophages.
C)They synthesize antibodies.
D)They are the most abundant type of leukocytes.

Question 58

Anaemia results from a reduced O₂-carrying capacity of the blood, which can be caused by a decrease in the number of ___________________.

A)leukocytes
B)lymphocytes
C)macrophages
D)erythrocytes

Question 59

Which are the most common leukocytes normally found in the blood

A)neutrophils
B)eosinophils
C)basophils
D)lymphocytes

Question 60

Which of these statements refers to lymphocytes

A)They are polymorphonuclear granulocytes found in lymph nodes.
B)They are the most abundant type of leukocyte.
C)They can be produced in lymphoid organs as well as in the bone marrow.
D)They phagocytize lymph nodes.

Question 61

Which of these statements does NOT refer to heparin

A)It is normally present in the body.
B)It is present in basophils.
C)It is used in some blood samples.
D)It stimulates the coagulation of blood.

Question 62

Platelets trapped within the fibrous meshwork of the clot ______________.

A)release plasmin
B)release prostacyclin
C)retract the clot
D)inactivate thrombin

Question 63

Which of these statements describes platelets

A)They convert prothrombin to thrombin.
B)They form the meshwork upon which the erythrocytes become trapped to produce a clot.
C)They adhere and aggregate when they contact exposed collagen in the walls of a broken blood vessel.
D)They release fibrinogen once a platelet plug is formed.

Question 64

What is the chemical signal released by healthy endothelial tissue in order to prevent overgrowth of platelet plugs

A)ATP
B)fibrinogen
C)prostacyclin
D)thromboxane

Question 65

Which of these statements describes prostacyclin

A)It activates the clotting cascade.
B)It induces profound vasoconstriction of an injured vessel.
C)It profoundly inhibits platelet aggregation.
D)It is released by aggregated platelets.

Question 66

Which of these platelet counts is within the normal range

A)100000/mm3
B)130000/mm3
C)250000/mm3
D)600000/mm3

Question 67

What are platelets normally attracted to

A)a collection of white blood cells
B)a disrupted surface of a blood vessel
C)a smooth surface
D)a source of ATP production

Question 68

Which of the following can occur with leukaemia

A)inadequate defence capabilities against foreign invasion
B)decreased number of white blood cells
C)increased blood clotting due to high numbers of platelets
D)increased red cell production

Question 69

Which of these actions occurs in the last step of blood coagulation

A)Fibrin is converted to fibrinogen.
B)Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin.
C)Platelet factor enters numerous reactions.
D)Prothrombin is converted to thrombin.

Question 70

What does exposed collagen in a damaged vessel do

A)It activates factor I to initiate blood clotting.
B)It initiates platelet production.
C)It secretes ADP, which causes platelets to become sticky.
D)It activates factor XII to initiate blood clotting, and it initiates platelet aggregation.

Question 71

Which of these statements does NOT describe platelets

A)They are produced in the bone marrow.
B)They form the meshwork of a blood clot, upon which the other cellular elements become entrapped.
C)They form a plug when they adhere to the exposed collagen of a damaged vessel.
D)When aggregated, they release serotonin, epinephrine, and thromboxane A2.

Question 72

Which of these actions is NOT accomplished by thrombin

A)stimulation of conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
B)activation of tissue thromboplastin, which initiates the extrinsic clotting pathway
C)activation of factor XIII (fibrin-stabilizing factor)
D)enhancement of platelet aggregation

Question 73

What is the sequence of events leading to clot formation

A)prothrombin-fibrinogen-thrombin-fibrin
B)fibrin-prothrombin-fibrinogen-thrombin
C)prothrombin-thrombin-fibrinogen-fibrin
D)fibrinogen-prothrombin-fibrin-thrombin

Question 74

Which of the following substances signals platelet aggregation to be reinforced

A)ADP
B)fibrinogen
C)thromboxane
D)prostacyclin

Question 75

Since fibrinogen is always present in the blood, but the blood does not clot, what must normally be absent

A)prothrombin
B)thrombin
C)calcium
D)platelets

Question 76

Which of these steps is NOT involved in haemostasis

A)vascular spasms
B)platelet aggregation
C)coagulation
D)erythropoiesis

Question 77

What is the chemical signal that makes platelets sticky upon aggregation

A)ADP
B)ATP
C)prostacyclin
D)thromboxane

Question 78

Which of the following is NOT a required factor in the intrinsic clotting mechanism

A)calcium ion
B)factor XII
C)platelet factor 3
D)factor VII

Question 79

Which cells leave the blood after circulating for only a day or two, and become the large tissue phagocytes known as macrophages

A)eosinophils
B)basophils
C)lymphocytes
D)monocytes

Question 80

Which of these statements does NOT describe platelets

A)They do not adhere to normal vascular surfaces.
B)When aggregated, they release ADP, which causes other platelets to become sticky and adhere to the platelet plug.
C)They directly convert fibrinogen to fibrin.
D)They form a plug, which releases chemicals that cause the injured vessel to constrict.