Deck 16: Immunology and Serology

Question 1

Arrange the stages in an antibody response in the correct sequence. 1 = Log phase
2 = Lag phase
3 = Plateau phase
4 = Decline

A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 2, 3, 1, 4
C) 4, 2, 1, 3
D) 2, 1, 3, 4

Answer 1

2, 1, 3, 4

Question 2

The antibody subclass associated with a primary response is:

A) IgM.
B) IgG.
C) IgD.
D) IgE.

Answer 2

IgM.

Question 3

Immediate hypersensitivity reactions are associated with:

A) IgM.
B) IgG.
C) IgE.
D) IgD.

Answer 3

IgE.

Question 4

A fundamental principle of immunology is recognition of:

A) body cells.
B) molecules.
C) self from nonself.
D) antibodies.

Question 5

A positive reaction when using the MonoSlide rapid slide test for infectious mononucleosis indicates the presence of:

A) Epstein-Barr virus.
B) heterophil antibodies.
C) Forssman antibodies.
D) guinea pig antibodies.

Question 6

The third line of defense is:

A) acquired.
B) adaptive.
C) natural.
D) both a and b.

Question 7

In the RPR test for syphilis,the presence of conditions such as infectious mononucleosis can cause ____ results.

A) false-positive
B) false-negative
C) no effect on the test
D) Either false-positive or false-negative

Question 8

The antibody subclass associated with a secondary response is:

A) IgM.
B) IgG.
C) IgD.
D) IgE.

Question 9

A popular method for waived,over-the-counter testing is:

A) chemiluminescence.
B) fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH).
C) signal amplification technology.
D) enzyme immunoassays (EIA).

Question 10

In testing for rheumatoid factor,lipemic or hemolyzed specimens can cause ____ results.

A) false-positive
B) false-negative
C) no effect on the test
D) both false positive and false negative

Question 11

A type I hypersensitivity reaction in sensitive persons is associated with agents such as:

A) peanuts.
B) poison ivy.
C) yellow hornet insect stings.
D) both a and c.

Question 12

Humoral-mediated immunity is associated with:

A) T lymphocytes.
B) B lymphocytes.
C) neutrophils.
D) monocytes.

Question 13

The second line of body defense consists of:

A) neutrophils, tissue basophils, macrophages.
B) complement and lysozyme.
C) interferon.
D) all of the above.

Question 14

A typical antibody response takes about ____ to develop sufficiently.

A) 24 hours
B) 72 hours
C) 1 week
D) 2 weeks

Question 15

The first line of body defense is:

A) unbroken skin.
B) normal biota.
C) body fluids (e.g., tears, saliva).
D) all of the above.

Question 16

Agglutination is comprehensively defined as:

A) aggregation of soluble test antigens.
B) aggregation of particulate test antigens.
C) the physical attachment of antibody molecules to antigens.
D) the establishment of cross-links between sensitized particles.

Question 17

Serology is the study of:

A) antigens.
B) antibodies.
C) chemical reactions.
D) infectious diseases.

Question 18

A convalescent blood specimen should be collected ____ after the onset of symptoms.

A) 24 hours
B) 72 hours
C) 1 week
D) 2 weeks

Question 19

Another name for innate immunity is ____ immunity.

A) natural
B) inborn
C) acquired
D) both natural and inborn

Question 20

In testing for rheumatoid factor,systemic lupus,syphilis,or hepatitis can cause ____ results.

A) false-positive
B) false-negative
C) no effect on the test
D) either false positive or false negative

Question 21

An anamnestic response differs from a primary antibody response in several important aspects.The plateau levels in a secondary response are typically 10-fold or more than the plateau levels in the primary response.

Question 22

Rheumatoid factor has been associated with IgM,IgG,and IgA immunoglobulin classes.

Question 23

Match the term with the appropriate definition.
passive natural immunity

A)vaccination
B)infusion of plasma containing antibodies
C)obtained from colostrum
D)as a result of suffering from the disease

Question 24

An anamnestic response differs from a primary antibody response in several important aspects.In a secondary response,antibody concentrations reach a higher titer.

Question 25

Factors that influence an individual's defense against disease include nutritional status.

Question 26

Match the term with the appropriate definition.
active natural immunity

A)vaccination
B)infusion of plasma containing antibodies
C)obtained from colostrum
D)as a result of suffering from the disease

Question 27

Match the leukocyte type with a specific function (use an answer only once).
monocytes-macrophages

A)recognition of foreign antigen and antibody production
B)antigen-presentation
C)phagocytosis

Question 28

Match the term with the appropriate definition.
passive artificial immunity

A)vaccination
B)infusion of plasma containing antibodies
C)obtained from colostrum
D)as a result of suffering from the disease

Question 29

A type IV hypersensitivity reaction manifestation can include:

A) contact sensitivity.
B) delayed hypersensitivity.
C) rejection of foreign tissue grafts.
D) all of the above.

Question 30

Match the antibody response term with the correct description.
lag

A)no detectable antibody
B)antibody titer stabilizes
C)antibody is catabolized
D)antibody titer increases

Question 31

Factors that influence an individual's defense against disease include status of general health.

Question 32

Factors that influence an individual's defense against disease include age.

Question 33

An anamnestic response differs from a primary antibody response in several important aspects.IgG-type antibodies are the principal class of antibody formed in a primary response.

Question 34

Rheumatoid factors are autoantibodies.

Question 35

Factors that influence an individual's defense against disease include taking mega-doses of vitamins.

Question 36

Match the leukocyte type with a specific function (use an answer only once).
lymphocytes-plasma cells

A)recognition of foreign antigen and antibody production
B)antigen-presentation
C)phagocytosis

Question 37

Match the term with the appropriate definition.
active artificial immunity

A)vaccination
B)infusion of plasma containing antibodies
C)obtained from colostrum
D)as a result of suffering from the disease

Question 38

The antinuclear antibody (ANA)assay is specific for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).

Question 39

Match the leukocyte type with a specific function (use an answer only once).
granulocytes

A)recognition of foreign antigen and antibody production
B)antigen-presentation
C)phagocytosis

Question 40

An anamnestic response differs from a primary antibody response in several important aspects.A secondary response has a longer lag phase,a longer plateau phase,and a more gradual decline in antibody titer.

Question 41

Match each statement with correct item below.
Direct immunofluorescent assay (DFA)

A)A conjugated antibody is used to detect antigen-antibody reactions.
B)Antibodies can act as antigens and react with antiimmunoglobulins.

Question 42

Match the antibody response term with the correct description.
log

A)no detectable antibody
B)antibody titer stabilizes
C)antibody is catabolized
D)antibody titer increases

Question 43

Match each statement with correct item below.
Indirect immunofluorescent assay (IFA)

A)A conjugated antibody is used to detect antigen-antibody reactions.
B)Antibodies can act as antigens and react with antiimmunoglobulins.

Question 44

Match the antibody response term with the correct description.
plateau

A)no detectable antibody
B)antibody titer stabilizes
C)antibody is catabolized
D)antibody titer increases

Question 45

Match the antibody response term with the correct description.
decline

A)no detectable antibody
B)antibody titer stabilizes
C)antibody is catabolized
D)antibody titer increases