Deck 16: Medications and Electrical Therapy

Question 1

Atropine has what effect on the heart?

A)It increases the heart rate.
B)It decreases the heart rate.
C)It minimizes atrial kick.
D)It has no effect on the heart.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Amiodarone can be used to treat arrhythmias originating in all locations EXCEPT the

A)sinus node.
B)atrium.
C)AV junction.
D)ventricle.

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Certain glaucoma medications can cause

A)bradycardias.
B)an increase in heart rate.
C)ST segment elevation.
D)hemiblocks.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Which combination of medications would be appropriate to use for the patient in asystole?

A)Atropine and lidocaine
B)Epinephrine and amiodarone
C)Verapamil and digitalis
D)Atropine and epinephrine

Question 5

In a cardiac arrest emergency,epinephrine should be given in which of the following ways?

A)Via a slow-release skin patch
B)Intravenously
C)Orally
D)Intramuscularly

Question 6

What is epinephrine's effect on blood pressure?

A)No effect
B)Increases blood pressure
C)Decreases blood pressure
D)Causes a sudden increase in BP,then a profound drop in BP

Question 7

Beta-blockers must be used with caution in patients with

A)supraventricular tachycardia.
B)asthma or chronic lung disease.
C)hypertension.
D)atrial tachycardia.

Question 8

Beta-blockers have what effect on heart rate and contractility?

A)Increased heart rate and contractility
B)Decreased heart rate and contractility
C)Increased heart rate and decreased contractility
D)Decreased heart rate and increased contractility

Question 9

Which of the following is NOT used in the treatment of rapid ventricular arrhythmias?

A)Lidocaine
B)Amiodarone
C)Procainamide
D)Digitalis

Question 10

Hypoxia is treated with the administration of

A)digitalis.
B)verapamil.
C)epinephrine.
D)oxygen.

Question 11

Your patient is in ventricular tachycardia with a heart rate of 124.His blood pressure is stable but he's complaining of mild dizziness.Appropriate treatment for THIS PATIENT AT THIS TIME is

A)immediate defibrillation.
B)amiodarone to decrease ventricular irritability and help convert the rhythm back to sinus.
C)immediate electrical cardioversion.
D)CPR.

Question 12

Propranolol (Inderol)is a

A)beta-blocker.
B)cardiac glycoside.
C)calcium channel blocker.
D)sodium channel blocker.

Question 13

Which of the following directly causes increased tissue oxygenation?

A)Lidocaine
B)Oxygen
C)Epinephrine
D)Atropine

Question 14

Epinephrine has what effect on heart rate and contractility?

A)Increased heart rate and contractility
B)Increased heart rate,decreased contractility
C)Decreased heart rate and contractility
D)Decreased heart rate,increased contractility

Question 15

Atropine would NOT be appropriate in the treatment of

A)junctional bradycardia with heart rate of 38.
B)third-degree AV block with heart rate of 32.
C)idioventricular rhythm with heart rate of 28.
D)supraventricular tachycardia with heart rate of 167.

Question 16

Which of the following interferes with the movement of calcium ions through the cardiac cell membranes?

A)Propranolol
B)Diltiazem
C)Digitalis
D)Nitroglycerin

Question 17

Which of the following medications blocks vagus nerve effects on the heart?

A)Digitalis
B)Epinephrine
C)Atropine
D)Verapamil

Question 18

When Mrs.Hoffstetter passed out at the mall,paramedics found her heart rate to be 34.Which of the following medications would be appropriate to give to cause the heart rate to increase?

A)Digitalis
B)Propranolol
C)Adenosine
D)Atropine

Question 19

Digitalis is a

A)calcium channel blocker.
B)beta-blocker.
C)sodium channel blocker.
D)cardiac glycoside.

Question 20

Your 46-year-old patient,Mr.Joseph,is brought by ambulance to the ER.There are no P waves or QRS complexes at all on his rhythm strip-only a flat line.Which of the following medications is INAPPROPRIATE for treating this rhythm?

A)Atropine
B)Epinephrine
C)Oxygen
D)Propranolol

Question 21

Which of the following is TRUE?

A)Defibrillation tends to involve a smaller shock than cardioversion.
B)Cardioversion involves synchronizing the shock with the cardiac cycle.
C)Defibrillation is the preferred method of converting atrial tachycardia back to sinus rhythm.
D)Defibrillation is the treatment of choice for atrial fibrillation.

Question 22

If a pacemaker fails to fire,what is shown on the EKG?

A)Lack of a P or QRS after the pacemaker spike
B)Lack of a pacemaker spike where there should be one
C)Paced beats on top of intrinsic beats
D)Tall,pointy T waves

Question 23

The first letter of the pacemaker code tells the

A)chamber sensed.
B)chamber paced.
C)pacemaker's response to sensed events.
D)programmability of the pacemaker.

Question 24

When a pacemaker fires,it creates what sign on the EKG?

A)A P wave
B)A QRS complex
C)A T wave
D)A spike

Question 25

Your patient has his own P waves but no QRS complexes.His DDD pacemaker should

A)ignore the intrinsic P waves,providing him with paced P waves and QRS complexes.
B)provide him with QRS complexes at a preset rate,ignoring intrinsic P waves.
C)sense the intrinsic P waves and deliver QRS complexes to follow those P waves within a preset rate range.
D)be inhibited and wait until there are no P waves or QRS complexes.

Question 26

The pacemaker's generation of an electrical impulse is called

A)capture.
B)firing.
C)sensing.
D)conductivity.

Question 27

Which of the following is NOT true about VOO pacemakers?

A)They are demand pacemakers.
B)They are fixed-rate pacemakers.
C)They fire at their preset rate regardless of intrinsic beats.
D)They can cause fibrillation if the paced beat lands on the vulnerable period of the intrinsic beat's cardiac cycle.

Question 28

Which of the following would NOT be an indication for a pacemaker?

A)Idioventricular rhythm
B)Sinus rhythm
C)Third-degree AV block
D)Mobitz II second-degree AV block

Question 29

DDD pacemakers

A)pace the atrium and the ventricle in succession.
B)pace only the atrium.
C)pace only the ventricle.
D)are used primarily to manage slow atrial fibrillation.

Question 30

A transcutaneous pacemaker paces the heart

A)through the skin.
B)by way of a wire threaded through a vein and into the heart.
C)by way of a wire attached to the surface of the heart.
D)permanently.

Question 31

If the synchronizer button is on when trying to shock the patient in V-fib

A)no shock will be delivered at all.
B)shock delivery will be delayed.
C)the health care worker will be shocked.
D)a dangerously large shock will be delivered.

Question 32

A fixed-rate pacemaker

A)fires only on demand.
B)senses intrinsic beats.
C)fires at its preset rate regardless of intrinsic beats.
D)is called synchronous.

Question 33

A DDD pacemaker paces which chamber(s)of the heart?

A)Right atrium
B)Right ventricle
C)Left ventricle
D)Right atrium and right ventricle

Question 34

An AV universal pacemaker paces which chamber(s)of the heart?

A)Right atrium
B)Right ventricle
C)Left atrium
D)Right atrium and right ventricle

Question 35

An AICD is

A)a defibrillator meant for use by the lay public.
B)an implanted defibrillator.
C)a cardiac monitor and defibrillator meant for use by health care professionals.
D)the same as a monitor-defibrillator.

Question 36

A VOO pacemaker would pace the

A)ventricle,sense the ventricle,and be inhibited by intrinsic ventricular beats.
B)atrium,sense nothing,and have no response to sensed events since it cannot sense.
C)ventricle,sense nothing,and have no response to sensed events since it cannot sense.
D)atrium and ventricle,sense atrium and ventricle,and have both an inhibitory and a triggered response to sensed events.

Question 37

Capture is evidenced on the EKG by the presence of

A)P waves or QRS complexes following the pacemaker spikes.
B)pacemaker spikes at regular intervals.
C)paced beats on top of intrinsic beats.
D)an appropriate distance between intrinsic beats and paced beats.

Question 38

Your patient is in pulseless ventricular tachycardia.Your first intervention should be

A)defibrillation.
B)amiodarone bolus IV.
C)electrical cardioversion.
D)to encourage the patient to try vagal maneuvers.

Question 39

The second letter of the pacemaker code tells the

A)chamber paced.
B)chamber sensed.
C)pacemaker's response to sensed events.
D)programmability of the pacemaker.

Question 40

An AED is

A)a defibrillator meant for use by the lay public.
B)an implanted defibrillator.
C)a cardiac monitor and defibrillator meant for use by health care professionals.
D)the same as a monitor-defibrillator.

Question 41

Mrs.Chilton has a VVI pacemaker set at a rate of 70.Which of the following rhythms should the pacemaker prevent from happening?

A)Junctional bradycardia
B)Ventricular tachycardia
C)Torsades de pointes
D)SVT

Question 42

Mrs.McShelton has a VVI pacemaker.She is having pacemaker spikes in the T waves,QRS complexes,and ST segments of her intrinsic beats.This is indicative of

A)a normally functioning pacemaker.
B)failure to fire.
C)loss of capture.
D)undersensing.

Question 43

Pacemaker spikes inside T waves and QRS complexes are a sign of which malfunction?

A)Failure to fire
B)Oversensing
C)Undersensing
D)Loss of capture

Question 44

A client who has overdosed on tricyclic antidepressants would most likely exhibit which of the following findings on an EKG?

A)Shortened PR intervals
B)Widened QRS segments
C)Shortened QT intervals
D)Narrowed QRS segments

Question 45

What should a VVI pacemaker do when the patient goes into asystole?

A)The VVI pacemaker should fire at a slower rate than normal to preserve battery life.
B)It will do nothing,since there's nothing for it to sense.
C)The pacemaker should pace the atrium and ventricle at its programmed rate.
D)The pacemaker should pace the ventricle at its programmed rate.

Question 46

Which of the following is NOT a criterion for implantation of CRT?

A)Wide QRS segment
B)Severe heart failure with left ventricular EF < 35%
C)Sinus rhythm
D)Shortened PR intervals

Question 47

The primary function of an artificial pacemaker is to

A)prevent the heat from beating unnecessarily.
B)force the heart to beat.
C)prevent the heart rate from becoming too slow.
D)slow down the heart rate.

Question 48

VVI pacemakers are inserted into which chamber of the heart?

A)Right atrium
B)Left atrium
C)Right ventricle
D)Left ventricle

Question 49

Following cardiac arrest,use of therapeutic hypothermia reduces the risk of

A)unconsciousness.
B)bradycardia.
C)ischemic brain damage.
D)ventricular arrhythmia.

Question 50

The most common pacemaker malfunctions include ALL BUT which of the following?

A)Failure to fire
B)Failure to capture
C)Failure to sense
D)Failure to repolarize

Question 51

CRT involves use of a pacemaker that has pacing electrodes in

A)the right atrium and both ventricles.
B)the left atrium and both ventricles.
C)the right ventricle and both atria.
D)the left ventricle and both atria.

Question 52

Your patient's temporary pacemaker lost capture when he turned from his back onto his side.What action is most likely to restore capture?

A)Replace the pacemaker battery.
B)Surgically remove and replace the defective pacemaker.
C)Turn the patient back onto his back.
D)Turn the sensitivity up.

Question 53

Which of the following findings would be LEAST likely in a client who is taking diuretics?

A)Ventricular irritability
B)Tachycardias
C)Ventricular arrhythmias
D)Bradycardia

Question 54

The pulse generator is

A)the battery pack.
B)the pacing wire.
C)a specially adapted pacing catheter that generates its own electricity.
D)not needed in transvenous pacemakers.

Question 55

Which of the following describes undersensing?

A)The pacemaker fires but does not cause depolarization in the chamber being paced.
B)The pacemaker incorrectly interprets something as a depolarization and is inhibited from firing.
C)The pacemaker fails to sense intrinsic beats and paces on top of them.
D)The pacemaker fails to generate an impulse.

Question 56

Mr.Gorp has a pacemaker that senses atrial and ventricular depolarizations and paces the atrium and ventricle.It can be inhibited or triggered by sensed events.What kind of pacemaker is this?

A)DOO
B)VVI
C)DVI
D)DDD

Question 57

During TH,the patient's body temperature is reduced to between

A)87 to 90 degrees Fahrenheit.
B)90 to 93 degrees Fahrenheit.
C)93 to 96 degrees Fahrenheit.
D)84 to 87 degrees Fahrenheit.

Question 58

Cardioversion and defibrillation are the same thing.

Question 59

Amiodarone is used to treat ventricular and supraventricular rhythms.

Question 60

Pacemakers function by providing an electrical stimulus when

A)the heart is experiencing periods of low exertion.
B)the heart is no longer capable of beating.
C)the heart's own stimulus is too fast to provide adequate cardiac output.
D)the heart is unable to generate its own stimulus.

Question 61

An AED is meant for use by health care workers only.

Question 62

Defibrillation is the treatment of choice for V-fib.

Question 63

Beta-blockers slow the heart rate and decrease blood pressure.

Question 64

Class IV antiarrhythmics are calcium channel blockers.

Question 65

Sodium channel blockers are Class II antiarrhythmics.

Question 66

Oxygen administration has risks and benefits,just like medications do.

Question 67

Six to seven seconds of asystole sometimes follows administration of adenosine.

Question 68

Transvenous pacemaker electrodes are attached to the skin on the front and back of the patient.

Question 69

AICDs can be found at malls,airports,and on airplanes.

Question 70

Epinephrine is a beta-blocker.

Question 71

Atropine cannot be given during cardiac arrest.

Question 72

Emergency cardiac medications should be given by mouth during a cardiac arrest.

Question 73

Sodium bicarbonate is given to increase the blood's acidity.

Question 74

Pulseless V-tach is treated like V-fib and defibrillated.

Question 75

Digitalis is classified as a cardiac glycoside.

Question 76

Epinephrine is a first-line treatment for SVT.

Question 77

Pacemaker batteries last 5 to 15 years,depending on their use.

Question 78

Calcium channel blockers slow AV conduction and decrease myocardial contractility.

Question 79

Atrial fibrillation should be defibrillated rather than cardioverted.

Question 80

Antiarrhythmic medications can sometimes cause arrhythmias.