Deck 10: Genetic Engineering and Recombinant Dna

Question 1

EcoRI and HindIII are ______.

A)palindromes
B)reverse transcriptases
C)restriction endonucleases
D)ligases
E)DNA polymerases

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Which of the following is not true of fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)?

A)Probes can be applied to intact cells.
B)Probes can locate genes on chromosomes.
C)It can be used to identify unknown bacteria without culturing.
D)It uses electrophoresis to separate the DNA.
E)It can be used to detect RNA in cells.

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Gene probes can be labeled for detection with reporter molecules such as _____.

A)enzymes
B)fluorescent dyes
C)radioisotopes
D)All of the choices above can be used.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Restriction endonucleases recognize and clip DNA base sequences called ______.

A)codons
B)palindromes
C)introns
D)exons
E)genes

Question 5

Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis is based on

A)larger fragments moving slowly and remaining closer to the wells.
B)DNA having an overall negative charge and moving to the positive pole.
C)DNA fragments being stained so that they can be seen.
D)application of an electric current through the gel causing DNA fragments to migrate.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 6

Amplification of DNA is accomplished by ______.

A)a Southern blot
B)a Western blot
C)DNA sequencing
D)gene probes
E)the polymerase chain reaction

Question 7

DNA fragments can be separated in gel electrophoresis because

A)phosphate groups have a net negative charge.
B)nitrogenous bases have a net negative charge.
C)nitrogenous bases have a net positive charge.
D)phosphate groups have a net positive charge.

Question 8

Geneticists can create sequences of DNA from RNA using enzymes called ______.

A)palindromes
B)reverse transcriptases
C)restriction endonucleases
D)ligases
E)DNA polymerases

Question 9

The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab are termed ______.

A)genetic engineering
B)biotechnology
C)recombinant DNA
D)gel electrophoresis
E)gene probes

Question 10

DNA strands can begin to separate at the temperature of ______.

A)37^oC
B)42^oC
C)60^oC
D)90^oC
E)100^oC

Question 11

The size of DNA is often given in the number of _____ that it contains.

A)genes
B)codons
C)base pairs
D)proteins
E)triplets

Question 12

A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is ______.

A)genetic engineering
B)biotechnology
C)recombinant DNA
D)gel electrophoresis
E)gene probes

Question 13

Two different nucleic acids can _____ by annealing at their complementary sites.

A)form a peptide bond
B)covalently bond
C)ligate
D)hybridize

Question 14

Labeled, known, short stretches of DNA used to detect a specific sequence of nucleotides in a mixture are known as ______.

A)genetic engineering
B)biotechnology
C)recombinant DNA
D)gel electrophoresis
E)gene probes

Question 15

DNA strands can be clipped crosswise at selected positions by using enzymes called ______.

A)palindromes
B)reverse transcriptases
C)restriction endonucleases
D)ligases
E)DNA polymerases

Question 16

Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5'to 3'direction on one strand and the 3'to 5' direction on the other strand are ______.

A)palindromes
B)reverse transcriptases
C)restriction endonucleases
D)ligases
E)DNA polymerases

Question 17

Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) probes are applied to intact cells and observed microscopically for the presence and location of

A)DNA.
B)proteins.
C)a specific genetic marker sequence.
D)recombinant DNA.
E)RNA.

Question 18

In the formation of recombinant DNA, what enzyme is needed to seal the sticky ends of genes into plasmids or chromosomes?

A)DNA polymerase I
B)DNA polymerase II
C)DNA helicase
D)DNA ligase
E)Primase

Question 19

DNA polymerases used in PCR

A)use an RNA template to make complementary DNA.
B)must remain active at very cold temperatures.
C)include Taq polymerases and Vent polymerase.
D)are labeled with fluorescent dyes.

Question 20

Any use of an organism's biochemical processes to create a product is referred to as ______.

A)genetic engineering
B)biotechnology
C)recombinant DNA
D)gel electrophoresis
E)gene probes

Question 21

Common vectors used to transfer a piece of DNA into a cloning host are

A)plasmids.
B)viruses.
C)bacteriophages.
D)artificial chromosomes.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 22

The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and its subsequent transfer into the genome of another organism is a specific technique called ______.

A)genetic engineering
B)biotechnology
C)recombinant DNA technology
D)gel electrophoresis
E)gene probe technology

Question 23

Which step in gene mapping involves transformation?

A)Target DNA removed from cells and isolated
B)Cloning host receives plasmid
C)Target DNA and plasmid treated with the same restriction endonuclease
D)Desired protein is produced by cloning host
E)Gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host

Question 24

Transgenic animals

A)can be engineered to become factories for manufacturing proteins.
B)are often obtained from germline engineering.
C)will pass the genes on to their offspring.
D)commonly include mice.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 25

Genomic _____ are collections of isolated genes maintained in cloning hosts.

A)DNA
B)libraries
C)clones
D)digests
E)books

Question 26

Which of the following is not true of vectors?

A)They are easy to manipulate.
B)They can detect RNA in cells.
C)An origin of replication (ORI) is present.
D)They contain a gene for drug resistance.
E)They must accept DNA of desired size.

Question 27

The commercial product Frostban consists of a genetically altered bacterium which prevents ice crystals from forming on plants, thereby reducing freezing of plants and financial distress to the farmers as a result of freezing weather.This product contains a strain of ______.

A)Escherichia coli
B)Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C)Thermus aquaticus
D)Pseudomonas fluorescens
E)Pseudomonas syringae

Question 28

Each of the following are features of a cloning host except

A)quick generation time.
B)minimal growth requirements.
C)mapped genome.
D)pathogenicity.
E)transformable.

Question 29

Which step in gene mapping can occur even more rapidly by PCR?

A)Target DNA removed from cells and isolated
B)Cloning host treated with calcium chloride and receives plasmid
C)Target DNA and plasmid treated with the same restriction endonuclease
D)Desired protein is produced by cloning host
E)Gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host

Question 30

Making new genomes is called ______.

A)bioengineering
B)synthetic biology
C)genetic engineering
D)cloning
E)recombinant DNA

Question 31

If you start with 3 double-stranded DNA fragments, after 4 cycles of PCR you will have ____ fragments.

A)12
B)24
C)27
D)48
E)81

Question 32

Thermococcus litoralis and Thermus aquaticus are thermophilic bacteria that are

A)principal sources of restriction endonucleases.
B)used as cloning vectors.
C)genetically engineered bacteria.
D)sources of heat-stable DNA polymerases.

Question 33

Transgenic organisms are ______.

A)created in nature
B)only microorganisms
C)copyrighted
D)patented

Question 34

Which PCR step synthesizes complimentary DNA strands?

A) Heat target DNA to 94° C.
B) Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72° C.
C) Repeat the cycle of heating and cooling.
D) Cool DNA to between 50° C and 65° C.
E) Add primers.

Question 35

Recombinant strains of _____ are released to colonize plant roots to produce an insecticide to destroy invading insects.

A)Pseudomonas syringae
B)Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C)Pseudomonas fluorescens
D)Escherichia coli
E)Thermus aquaticus

Question 36

Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA?

A) Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72° C.
B) Cool DNA to between 50° C and 65° C.
C) Add primers.
D) Heat target DNA to 94° C.
E) Repeat the cycle of heating and cooling.

Question 37

The primers in PCR are

A)synthetic DNA oligonucleotides.
B)reverse transcriptases.
C)bacterial enzymes.
D)DNA polymerases.
E)short RNA strands.

Question 38

Each of the following are features of a cloning vector except

A)origin of replication.
B)reverse transcriptases.
C)genetic markers used to screen for recombinants.
D)capacity for large inserts.
E)multiple cloning sites.

Question 39

Which of the following is a list of the materials required for PCR?

A)Primers, Taq DNA polymerase, nucleotides
B)Primers, Taq RNA polymerase, nucleotides
C)Reverse transcriptase, Taq RNA polymerase, nucleotides
D)Reverse transcriptase, Taq DNA polymerase, nucleotides

Question 40

Which of the following is the second step in gene mapping?

A)Target DNA removed from cells and isolated
B)Cloning host treated with calcium chloride and receives plasmid
C)Separate DNA fragments with gel electrophoresis
D)Desired protein is produced by cloning host
E)Gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host

Question 41

Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template.

Question 42

Which of the following techniques is mismatched with its use in DNA fingerprinting?

A)PCR amplification to get more copies of DNA
B)Hybridization probes to digest the DNA sample
C)Electrophoresis to separate DNA fragments
D)Southern blot for a visual record of DNA fragments
E)Restriction endonucleases to cut DNA

Question 43

The first genetically engineered protein approved for human use was ______.

A)human insulin
B)hemophilia factor VIII
C)human adrenaline
D)human testosterone
E)human growth hormone

Question 44

When DNA is heated, the two strands will separate.

Question 45

Transformation and transduction are methods used to introduce DNA into host cells.

Question 46

The process of introducing a needed, normal gene into human cells is called DNA mapping.

Question 47

When patient tissues are transfected with viruses carrying a needed, normal human gene, the technique is called ______.

A)cloning
B)gene therapy
C)antisense therapy
D)DNA fingerprinting

Question 48

What type of DNA map gives locations and sizes of DNA sections?

A)Linkage
B)Sequence
C)Physical
D)Geographical
E)Chromosomal

Question 49

Humans display how much DNA similarity with mice?

A)50%
B)60%
C)70%
D)80%
E)90%

Question 50

Genetically modified organisms include _____.

A)bacteria
B)viruses
C)plants
D)nonhuman animals
E)All of the above have been genetically modified.

Question 51

What type of DNA map is most detailed?

A)Linkage
B)Sequence
C)Physical
D)Geographical
E)Chromosomal

Question 52

Viruses are often used as cloning hosts in recombinant DNA methods.

Question 53

Restriction endonucleases are obtained from various species of bacteria.

Question 54

After three replication cycles in PCR, there will be a total of three double-stranded DNA molecules.

Question 55

Which of the following is a promising treatment for stopping the expression of an unwanted gene?

A)DNA fingerprinting
B)Antisense therapy
C)Gene therapy
D)Cloning

Question 56

Transgenic animals are referred to as _____ modified organisms.

A)chemically
B)physically
C)naturally
D)genetically

Question 57

The study of genomes of a particular community is called ______.

A)metabolomics
B)proteomics
C)genomology
D)genomics
E)metagenomics

Question 58

Vectors often contain a gene conferring drug resistance to their cloning host, in order to detect cells harboring the plasmid.

Question 59

Of the following choices, which could be used in the treatment of a patient in order to determine the patient's cancer subtype?

A)Western Blot analysis
B)PCR
C)Microarray analysis
D)Transformation
E)Oryza sativa

Question 60

An example of gene therapy is the insertion of the gene for human growth hormone into E.coli cells.

Question 61

Before the advent of biotechnology, diabetics would use insulin harvested from cows.Now they receive human insulin produced through ______.

A)gel electrophoresis
B)gene therapy
C)PCR
D)recombinant DNA technology

Question 62

What is the evolutionary advantage of bacteria producing restriction endonucleases?

A)Bacteria use these enzymes to attack other bacteria and destroy their DNA.
B)They make these enzymes for humans to use in manipulating DNA.
C)These enzymes are a defensive measure of bacteria to defend themselves against invading DNA of bacteriophages.
D)Bacteria use these enzymes to repair their own mistakes made during DNA replication.

Question 63

The advantage of germline therapy over somatic cell therapy is that the normal gene is inserted into an egg, sperm, or developing embryo so that the repair is present in every cell of the organism as it matures to adulthood.

Question 64

When micro RNA molecules malfunction, their effect is limited to the inhibition of protein production, which results in tumor growth.

Question 65

Identification of unique DNA fingerprints relies on the presence of single nucleotide polymorphisms among samples.

Question 66

In choosing the vector used to carry human genes into a host cell, which of the following should be the important consideration?

A)How much donor DNA can be carried on the vector
B)What kind of plasmid it is
C)Whether the vector comes from a bacterium or a virus
D)Whether the vector contains RNA or DNA

Question 67

You have made a specific DNA probe that will bind to a key sequence on the DNA of Neisseria gonorrhoeae, allowing your company to market a gonorrhea test kit that can be used to identify the bacterium in genital tract specimens.However, upon testing it out against a known Neisseria gonorrhoeae culture, you find that it does not work.Which of the following is a possible explanation for this negative result?

A)You forgot to label the probe sequence with a reporter molecule.
B)You forgot to add the mRNA to the DNA probe sample.
C)You forgot to digest the probe with restriction endonucleases.
D)You forgot to incubate the test at the 75^oC temperature required for hybridization.

Question 68

The difference between somatic cell gene therapy and germline therapy is that

A)germline therapy overcomes a protein malfunction in specific tissues but is not repaired in the entire organism and cannot be passed on to offspring.
B)somatic cell gene therapy is introduced into the egg, sperm or developing embryo, whereas germline therapy introduces a new gene into a mature tissue.
C)somatic cell gene therapy overcomes a protein malfunction in specific tissues but is not repaired in the entire organism and cannot be passed on to offspring.
D)germline therapy is the temporary repair of a genetic mutation, whereas somatic cell therapy is a permanent fix.

Question 69

Microarray analysis is used to

A)analyze an organism's entire genome.
B)determine which genes are being expressed in an organism.
C)determine the size of gene fragments after digesting with restriction endonucleases.
D)analyze an individual's single nucleotide polymorphisms.

Question 70

Micro RNA therapy is based on the premise that miRNA molecules function to regulate gene expression, usually by inhibiting transcription; a non-functional miRNA can be replaced thereby reducing unwanted protein production.
B)miRNA molecules function to regulate gene expression, usually by promoting translation; a non-functional miRNA can be repaired thereby reducing unwanted protein production.
C)miRNA molecules function to regulate gene expression, usually by initiating transcription; an over-production of miRNA can be replaced thereby promoting necessary protein production.
D)miRNA molecules function to regulate protein production, usually by inhibiting translation; a hyperactive miRNA can be replaced thereby reducing unwanted proteins.

Question 71

The enzyme required to attach the sticky ends of DNA and used when splicing DNA fragments into other DNA is ______.

A)endonuclease
B)ligase
C)reverse transcriptase
D)helicase

Question 72

Often natural disasters leave little intact DNA with which to identify the victim's remains using traditional DNA fingerprinting techniques.The discovery of ______ made genetic analysis possible with minute amounts of genetic material.

A)miRNAs
B)frameshift mutations
C)SNPs
D)microarrays

Question 73

SNPs are derived from ______.

A)genetic engineering
B)frameshift mutations
C)gene therapy
D)point mutations

Question 74

Which of the following recombinant DNA technology products is mismatched?

A)Erythropoietin - stimulates erythrocyte production in bone marrow
B)Factor VIII - a protein necessary for the coagulation cascade
C)Interferons - stimulate antiviral protein production
D)Tissue plasminogen activating factor - stimulates blood clotting

Question 75

You want to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis in a patient sputum sample.Which procedure would be most useful in this case?

A)Whole genome sequencing
B)Polymerase chain reaction
C)DNA probe analysis
D)Microarray analysis

Question 76

Why is an enzyme from a thermophilic bacterium used in PCR?

A)The enzyme makes DNA that is more similar to human DNA.
B)This thermohile's enzyme will synthesize DNA.
C)DNA is replicated at a high temperature that denatures most proteins.
D)It is cheaper to obtain from live microorganisms than producing the enzyme in a lab.

Question 77

It is possible to identify mRNA molecules using fluorescently labeled cDNA.

Question 78

The field of pharmacogenomics uses knowledge of an individual's single nucleotide polymorphisms to determine how they will respond to a particular drug.

Question 79

It is now possible to very quickly map the genome of an organism or virus.

Question 80

Your infant has been diagnosed with severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID).Your doctor suggests which treatment as a possible cure for the disease?

A)Genome mapping
B)Reverse transcription
C)Gene therapy
D)Microarrays