Deck 39: Human Diseases Caused by Bacteria

Question 1

Beta-hemolytic group A streptococci are responsible for _________.

A)rheumatic fever
B)necrotizing fasciitis
C)pharyngitis
D)All of the choices are correct.

Answer 1

D

Question 2

A sharp reduction in the incidence of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b infections is principally due to

A)the discovery of new antibiotics.
B)the development of an effective vaccine.
C)the elimination of the natural reservoir of H.influenzae.
D)improvements in sanitary conditions in meat processing plants.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Which of the following is not a major cause of meningitis cases in the United States?

A)Neisseria meningitides
B)Haemophilus influenzae
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Legionnaires' disease is so named because

A)it caused a large epidemic among members of the French Foreign Legion.
B)it was first identified at a convention of the American Legion.
C)it was a common infection among foot soldiers.
D)None of the choices are correct.

Question 5

Which of the following does (do)not always require the presence of living bacteria?

A)Intoxications
B)Food poisoning
C)Bacterial diarrhea
D)All of the choices are correct.

Question 6

Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?

A)Glomerulonephritis
B)Rheumatic fever
C)Scarlet fever
D)Scarlatina

Question 7

Once the initial case has occurred,Legionnaires' disease spreads as a propagated epidemic.

Question 8

Diphtheria exotoxin is made only by strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that carry a prophage containing the tox gene.

Question 9

When in the human body,Legionella pneumophila resides

A)in alveolar macrophages.
B)in alveoli.
C)in the lower intestinal tract.
D)in the meninges.

Question 10

Mycobacterial infections in AIDS patients are mostly likely to be caused by ________.

A)Mycobacterium avium complex
B)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C)Mycobacterium bovis
D)Mycobacterium africanum

Question 11

Which of the following is prevented by the DTaP vaccine?

A)Diphtheria
B)Whooping cough
C)Tetanus
D)All of the choices are correct.

Question 12

Which of the following drug(s)is(are)used to treat tuberculosis?

A)Isoniazid
B)Ethambutol
C)Pyrazinamide
D)All of the choices are correct.

Question 13

Legionella pneumophila may be found in

A)soil and aquatic ecosystems.
B)air-conditioning systems.
C)shower stalls.
D)All of the choices are correct.

Question 14

The causative agent of whooping cough is _________.

A)Bartonella henselae
B)Ehrlichia chaffeensis
C)Bordetella pertussis
D)Campylobacter jejuni

Question 15

Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most prevalent Gram-negative bacterium isolated from pneumonia patients.

Question 16

Diphtheria is an acute contagious disease caused by an exotoxin that

A)functions by inhibiting protein synthesis.
B)may cause destruction of cardiac,kidney and nerve tissues.
C)can be neutralized as a result of immunity produced by the DTaP vaccine.
D)All of the choices are correct.

Question 17

In tuberculosis,when a caseous lesion calcifies,it is called a _________.

A)tubercle
B)Ghon complex
C)tuberculous cavity
D)All of the choices are correct.

Question 18

The exotoxin produced by Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A)causes an inflammatory response.
B)causes the formation of a pseudomembrane on the respiratory mucosa.
C)may destroy cardiac and kidney tissue.
D)All of the choices are correct.

Question 19

Diphtheria is treated with

A)antitoxin and antibiotics.
B)anti-inflammatory drugs and antibiotics.
C)DPT vaccine.
D)diuretic drugs and antibiotics.

Question 20

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A)does not cause pneumonia despite its name.
B)causes pneumonia more often than Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C)causes pneumonia only in conjunction with viral activity.
D)is one of the causes of atypical pneumonia.

Question 21

In the primary stage of syphilis,the initial symptom is a small,painless,reddened ulcer called a __________.

Question 22

Chlamydia trachomatis causes

A)dental caries.
B)trachoma.
C)gonococcal urethritis.
D)trachoma and nongonococcal urethritis.

Question 23

Newborn infants can be infected with Group _______ streptococcus during birth.

Question 24

Helicobacter pylori is a principal causative agent of

A)human ehrlichiosis.
B)toxic shock syndrome.
C)peptic ulcer disease.
D)gastroenteritis.

Question 25

Neisseria gonorrhoeae may sometimes cause

A)ophthalmia neonatorum.
B)nongonococcal urethritis.
C)lymphogranuloma venereum.
D)salpingitis.
E)salpingitis and ophthalmia neonatorum.

Question 26

Inflammation of the membranes around the brain or spinal cord is called __________.

Question 27

Diphtheria is a contagious disease that spreads from person to person mainly by the fecal-oral route.

Question 28

Trachoma is transmitted by

A)contact with inanimate objects.
B)hand-to-hand contact.
C)flies.
D)All of the choices are correct.

Question 29

Chlamydia trachomatis is the most prevalent single cause of blindness resulting from an infectious agent.

Question 30

The causative agent of bubonic plague is _________.

A)Coxiella burnetii
B)Ehrlichia chaffeensis
C)Yersinia pestis
D)Kingella kingae

Question 31

A(n)__________ is an enlarged lymph node that appears during cases of the plague.

Question 32

Plague is spread from wild rodents to humans by the bite of an infected tick.

Question 33

The natural host(s)for Borrelia burgdorferi is/are _________.

A)mosquitoes
B)birds
C)ticks
D)deer and field mice

Question 34

Lyme disease is spread from human to human by mosquito vectors.

Question 35

Which of the following is caused by a member of the rickettsias?

A)Rocky Mountain spotted fever
B)Q-fever
C)Typhoid fever
D)All of the choices are correct.

Question 36

The pathogen most frequently involved in causing clostridial myonecrosis is

A)Clostridium septicum.
B)Clostridium perfringens.
C)Clostridium tetani.
D)Streptococcus pyogenes.

Question 37

Identity confirmation of Yersinia pestis by advanced laboratory techniques can be carried out in almost any hospital clinical laboratory.

Question 38

The vector for Rocky Mountain spotted fever is the _________.

A)louse
B)flea
C)tick
D)mosquito

Question 39

A variety of free-living amoebae and ciliated protozoa are thought to provide a natural reservoir for survival and growth of Legionella spp.in nature.

Question 40

New cases of tuberculosis are frequently the result of reactivation of old dormant infections.

Question 41

Humans acquire typhoid fever by

A)sexual activity.
B)mosquito bites.
C)inhalation of contaminated dust particles.
D)ingesting water or food contaminated with feces.

Question 42

Pathogenic staphylococci inhibit neutrophil chemotaxis,phagocytosis,and the action of vancomycin by the production of _________.

A)hemolysins
B)slime
C)leukocidins
D)a capsule

Question 43

Campylobacter jejuni is commonly found in the intestinal tract of ________.

A)chickens
B)turkeys
C)cattle
D)All of the choices are correct.

Question 44

Which of the following is not involved in the transmission of salmonellosis?

A)Poultry
B)Eggs
C)Canned vegetables
D)Water

Question 45

A diffuse,spreading infection of subcutaneous skin tissue is ________.

A)erysipelas
B)cellulitis
C)rheumatic fever
D)glomerulonephritis

Question 46

Cholera is very prevalent in all of the following areas EXCEPT ________.

A)Asia
B)North America
C)Middle East
D)Africa

Question 47

Treatment of gas gangrene may involve _________.

A)wound debridement
B)antitoxins
C)hyperbaric chambers
D)All of the choices are correct.

Question 48

Staphylococcus epidermidis can be characterized by all of the following except that it

A)does not produce coagulase.
B)is not pigmented.
C)produces a yellow pigment.
D)can be associated with nosocomial infections.

Question 49

Staphylococci can be divided into pathogenic and relatively nonpathogenic strains based on whether or not they synthesize _________.

A)catalase
B)coagulase
C)leukocidins
D)a capsule

Question 50

Which of the following is not usually involved with the spread of staphylococci?

A)Sexual intercourse
B)Respiratory secretions
C)Hands
D)Inanimate objects

Question 51

Pelvic inflammatory disease may result from infection with ________.

A)Staphylococcus epidermidis
B)Clostridium perfringens
C)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D)Mycobacterium leprae

Question 52

Campylobacter jejuni is transmitted to humans by all of the following EXCEPT

A)contaminated food and water.
B)infected animals.
C)insect vectors.
D)anal-oral sexual activity.

Question 53

Leprosy is caused by a microbe of the genus ________.

A)Chlamydia
B)Streptococcus
C)Staphylococcus
D)Mycobacterium

Question 54

Passage of Vibrio cholerae through the human body results in reduced infectivity for the next human host.

Question 55

Which of the following play a role in the diagnosis of syphilis?

A)Clinical history
B)Immunofluorescence examination of lesion fluids
C)Dark-field examination of lesion fluids
D)All of the choices are correct.

Question 56

Which of the following is important in the treatment of potential infections by Clostridium tetani?

A)Proper care of wounds contaminated with soil
B)Prophylactic use of antitoxin
C)Administration of penicillin
D)All of the choices are important in the treatment of potential infections by Clostridium tetani.

Question 57

Which stage of syphilis is characterized by a skin rash?

A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Tertiary
D)Latent

Question 58

Staphylococcal food poisoning is caused by the ingestion of improperly stored or cooked food in which __________ has grown.

A)Staphylococcus epidermidis
B)Staphylococcus aureus
C)Staphylococcus pneumoniae
D)All of the choices are correct.

Question 59

An acute infection and inflammation of the dermal layer of the skin is ________.

A)scarlet fever
B)cellulitis
C)erysipelas
D)pharyngitis

Question 60

Gonorrhea,a sexually transmitted disease,is an acute infection of the mucous membranes of the ________.

A)genitourinary tract
B)conjunctiva
C)rectum
D)All of the choices are correct.

Question 61

Francisella tularensis is transmitted to humans by

A)biting arthropods.
B)direct contact with infected tissue.
C)inhalation of aerosols.
D)All of the choices are correct.

Question 62

In humans the most common type of anthrax disease is

A)cutaneous anthrax resulting from the introduction of spores into a break in the skin.
B)pulmonary anthrax from inhalation of spores attached to dust.
C)gastrointestinal anthrax resulting from consumption of undercooked food contaminated with spores.
D)tick borne anthrax resulting from direct introduction of vegetative Bacillus anthracis to the blood stream of a host.

Question 63

Q fever is apt to occur in epidemic form among _________.

A)farmers
B)slaughterhouse workers
C)veterinarians
D)All of the choices are correct.

Question 64

Non-toxin-producing strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae could infect the body but would not cause the typical symptoms of diphtheria.

Question 65

Humans may contact psittacosis by

A)handling infected birds.
B)inhaling excreta of dried birds.
C)consuming undercooked chicken.
D)handling infected birds and the dried excreta of birds.

Question 66

Individuals entering the room of a patient with Legionnaires' disease should wear a mask to prevent acquiring the disease from exposure to the patient.

Question 67

The disease anthrax is caused by a species belonging to which genus?

A)Vibrio
B)Kingella
C)Ehrlichia
D)Bacillus

Question 68

Anthrax is a highly infectious disease of animals that can be transmitted to humans who come in direct contact with infected animals or their products.

Question 69

The disease caused by Streptococcus mutans is

A)trachoma.
B)dental decay or caries.
C)plague.
D)atypical pneumonia.

Question 70

Sepsis and septic shock cannot be categorized under a specific mode of transmission.

Question 71

Bacillus anthracis strains can be separated into five categories based on

A)spore morphology.
B)serological assays for lipopolysaccharide variants.
C)a genetic assay that detects variable numbers of tandem repeats in various genes.
D)membrane lipid composition as determined by gas chromatography.

Question 72

Ornithosis is caused by

A)Chlamydophilia psittaci.
B)Chlamydia trachomatis.
C)Ureaplasma urealyticum.
D)Mycoplasma hominis.

Question 73

Dental pathogens are called __________.

Question 74

Escherichia coli O157:H7 is a major cause of hemorrhagic colitis in the United.States.

Question 75

__________ formation begins with the initial colonization of the pellicle by Streptococcus gordonii,S.oralis,and S.mitis.

Question 76

Two weeks following a hiking trip in which several ticks were noticed and numerous mosquitoes were biting,a 25-year-old man notices a rash shaped like a red ring on the back of his thigh.He was not concerned because he had no other symptoms.Three months later he noticed significant pain in his elbows and his knees.What is the most likely cause of his illness?

A)West Nile encephalitis
B)Lyme disease
C)Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
D)Ehrlichiosis

Question 77

Rickettsia rickettsii are readily phagocytized by macrophages.Why doesn't this control the infection and prevent the development of Rocky Mountain spotted fever?

A)The bacteria interfere with the development of antibodies.
B)The bacteria are toxic for T cells and prevent the development of cell-mediated immunity.
C)The bacteria escape from the phagosome and reproduce in the cytoplasm of the phagocyte.
D)The bacteria are unable to inactivate complement.

Question 78

Which body defense is neutralized by the type III secretion system of Yersinia pestis?

A)Phagocytes
B)Complement
C)T_H cells
D)Cytotoxic T cells
E)Antibodies

Question 79

Septic shock is actually the result of endogenous mediators released from the patient's own cells in response to bacterial endotoxins or exotoxins.

Question 80

Bacterial vaginosis may be the result of transfer from the rectum where the causative organisms usually reside in addition to occurring by means of sexual transmission.