Deck 6: Selection and Placement

Question 1

In general, the more reliable, valid, and generalizable the selection method is, the more utility it will have.

Answer 1

True
Explanation: Utility is the degree to which the information provided by selection methods enhances the bottom-line effectiveness of the organization. In general, the more reliable, valid, and generalizable the selection method is, the more utility it will have.

Question 2

As per the Age Discrimination in Employment Act, the burden of proof always lies with the person who faces discrimination.

Answer 2

False
Explanation: Court interpretations of the Age Discrimination in Employment Act also mirror those of the Civil Rights Act, in the sense that if any neutral-appearing practice happens to have adverse impact on those over 40, the burden of proof shifts to the employer, who must show business necessity to avoid a guilty verdict. The act does not protect younger workers (thus there is never a case for "reverse discrimination" here).

Question 3

Validity is necessary and sufficient condition for generalizability.

Answer 3

False
Explanation: Just as reliability is necessary but not sufficient for validity, validity is necessary but not sufficient for generalizability.

Question 4

The degree to which a measure is free from random error refers to its reliability.

Question 5

Executive orders are monitored by the Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs.

Question 6

Experience-based items ask what the person is likely to do when confronting a certain hypothetical situation in the future.

Question 7

The Civil Rights Act of 1991 protects individuals from discrimination based on race, sex, religion, and national origin with respect to hiring as well as compensation and working conditions.

Question 8

Reliability refers to the characteristic being measured rather than to the measuring instrument.

Question 9

The correlation coefficient is zero for a perfect positive relationship.

Question 10

Criterion-related validation is generally more applicable than content validation.

Question 11

Generalizability is defined as the degree to which the validity of a selection method established in one context extends to other contexts.

Question 12

Content validity is achieved primarily through a process of expert judgment.

Question 13

The utility of any given test generally increases as the selection ratio gets lower, so long as the additional costs of recruiting and testing are not excessive.

Question 14

A physical ability test measures balance and coordination, among other things.

Question 15

A concurrent validation assesses the validity of a test by administering it to people already on the job and then correlating test scores with existing measures of each person's performance.

Question 16

Much of the work in personnel selection involves measuring characteristics of people to determine who will be accepted for job openings.

Question 17

Validity is the extent to which performance on the measure is related to performance on the job.

Question 18

A measure must be reliable if it is to have validity.

Question 19

The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1991 protects individuals with physical disabilities, but not those with mental disabilities.

Question 20

The size of the sample on which the correlation is based has no role in achieving statistical significance.

Question 21

Which of the following statements is true of the reliability of a measurement?

A)A measurement is said to be reliable when only two iterations are involved in measurement.
B)Reliability refers to the measuring instrument rather than to the characteristic itself.
C)It is not dependent on the attributes of the measuring instruments used.
D)Reliability indicates the degree to which two objects are related to each other.
E)It indicates the extent to which performance on the measure is related to performance on the job.

Question 22

When assessing the reliability of a measure, one might be interested in knowing how scores on the measure at one time relate to scores on the same measure at another time. This is called:

A)test-interdependency.
B)test-retest reliability.
C)mutual exclusivity.
D)test utility.
E)test generalizability.

Question 23

Which of the following correlation coefficients indicates a perfect positive relationship?

A)+1.0
B)-1.0
C)0
D)+100
E)-6.67

Question 24

Which of the following is the most accurate definition of concurrent validity?

A)It is an estimate of whether a test appears to measure a certain criterion.
B)It is performed by demonstrating that the questions or problems posed by the test are a representative sample of the kinds of situations or problems that occur on the job.
C)It assesses the validity of a test by administering it to people already on the job and then correlating test scores with existing measures of each person's performance.
D)It seeks to establish an empirical relationship between test scores taken prior to being hired and eventual performance on the job.
E)It refers to the degree to which a measure is correlated with other measures that it is theoretically predicted to correlate with.

Question 25

Predictive validation is superior to concurrent validation because:

A)predictive valuation involves contribution from many individuals.
B)job applicants often have no information about organizational culture.
C)job applicants are more motivated than an organization's employees.
D)effort needed for predictive valuation is lesser than concurrent valuation.
E)time taken for predictive valuation is lesser than concurrent valuation.

Question 26

Which of the following statements is true regarding reliability and validity?

A)Reliability and validity are directly proportional to each other.
B)Reliability and validity are inversely proportional to each other.
C)A measure must be reliable if it is to have any validity.
D)Every measure that is reliable has high degree of validity.
E)Reliability is a necessary and sufficient condition for validity.

Question 27

_____ validation seeks to establish an empirical relationship between test scores taken prior to being hired and eventual performance on the job.

A)Content
B)Predictive
C)Concurrent
D)Subjective
E)Logical

Question 28

The _____ is a measure of the degree to which two sets of numbers are related.

A)utility score
B)standard deviation
C)correlation coefficient
D)validity score
E)generalizability coefficient

Question 29

The Polygraph Act permitted the use of polygraphs in employment screening.

Question 30

Work-sample tests are not job specific and their generalizability is high.

Question 31

To test the validity of your selection device for widget makers, you have given it to the present widget makers in your company and correlated it with their latest performance appraisal scores. What type of strategy have you used?

A)Predictive validation
B)Content validation
C)Concurrent validation
D)Face validation
E)Logical validation

Question 32

The major controversies surrounding drug tests concern their reliability and validity.

Question 33

Which of the following correlation coefficients indicates a perfect negative relationship?

A)+100
B)-6.67
C)+1.0
D)-1.0
E)0.0

Question 34

_____ is defined as the degree to which a measure is free from random error.

A)Reliability
B)Validity
C)Generalizability
D)Utility
E)Dependency

Question 35

One of the positive features of the paper-and-pencil honesty test is that one does not see large differences attributable to race or sex, so they are not likely to have adverse impact on these demographic groups.

Question 36

Which of the following validation strategies is most likely to be adversely affected by the restriction of range problem that results from current employees tending to be homogeneous?

A)Predictive validation
B)Concurrent validation
C)Content validation
D)Secondary validation
E)External validation

Question 37

Employees with high conscientious tend to be lethargic and ill-disciplined.

Question 38

The extent to which performance on the selection measure is associated with performance on the job is called:

A)reliability.
B)validity.
C)generalizability.
D)utility.
E)authenticity.

Question 39

If there is a substantial correlation between test scores and job-performance scores, _____ validity has been established.

A)criterion-related
B)content
C)construct
D)procedural
E)subject

Question 40

Which of the following steps can help an organization increase the reliability of its interview process?

A)Using single interviewer instead of multiple interviewers
B)Basing tests on the people who are already working
C)Providing raters with standardized training
D)Avoiding the use of common formats to rate candidates
E)Basing tests on people who were most successful in earlier interviews

Question 41

_____ is defined as the degree to which the validity of a selection method established in one context extends to other contexts.

A)Utility
B)Generalizability
C)Reliability
D)Legality
E)Exclusivity

Question 42

Content validation:

A)seeks to establish an empirical relationship between test scores taken prior to being hired and eventual performance on the job.
B)refers to the degree to which a measure is correlated with other measures that it is theoretically predicted to correlate with.
C)is performed by demonstrating that the items, questions, or problems posed by a test are a representative sample of the kinds of situations or problems that occur on the job.
D)is an estimate of whether a test appears to measure a certain criterion.
E)assesses the validity of a test by administering it to people already on the job and then correlating test scores with existing measures of each person's performance.

Question 43

The _____ defines employers' explicit obligation to establish the business necessity of any neutral-appearing selection method that has had adverse impact on groups specified by the law.

A)Rehabilitation Act of 1973
B)Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
C)Civil Rights Act of 1991
D)Civil Rights Act of 1964
E)No-FEAR Act of 2002

Question 44

A firm wants to hire 15 electricians. It intends to hire only experienced electricians and, as a result, has no plans to train them. A test is developed such that it requires applicants to identify the mistakes in the circuit's wiring and rewire the circuit properly. This test is using _____ validation.

A)predictive
B)subjective
C)criterion-related
D)content
E)concurrent

Question 45

A test that has _____ validity exposes the job applicant to situations that are likely to occur on the job, and then tests whether the applicant currently has sufficient knowledge, skill, or ability to handle such situations.

A)criterion-related
B)probabilistic
C)predictive
D)content
E)concurrent

Question 46

Content validity is achieved primarily through a process of _____.

A)quantitative analysis
B)empirical study
C)secondary research
D)procedural study
E)expert judgment

Question 47

A construction firm needs to hire a construction superintendent, whose primary responsibilities involve organizing, supervising, and inspecting the work of several subcontractors. It administers a construction-error recognition test, where an applicant enters a room that has been specially constructed to have 10 common and expensive errors and where he/she is asked to record as many problems as he/she can detect. What type of validation is being used here?

A)Concurrent validation
B)Predictive validation
C)Content validation
D)Criterion-related validation
E)Subjective validation

Question 48

As per the Age Discrimination in Employment Act, if any neutral-appearing practice happens to have adverse impact on those over 40, the employer must _____.

A)show business necessity to avoid a guilty verdict
B)make accommodations despite facing hardships
C)facilitate pre-mature retirement for the employees
D)compensate the employee prior to court trials
E)provide special incentives to the suffering employees

Question 49

When a company provides evidence from previous criterion-related validity studies conducted in other situations to show that a specific test is a valid predictor for a specific job performance, it is trying to prove the test's:

A)reliability.
B)utility.
C)co-efficiency.
D)generalizability.
E)legality.

Question 50

Which of the following acts explicitly prohibits the granting of preferential treatment to minority groups?

A)Civil Rights Act of 1964
B)Tenure of Office Act of 1867
C)Judiciary Act of 1801
D)Third Liberty Bond Act of 1918
E)Civil Rights Act of 1991

Question 51

In case of _____ validation, it is critical to minimize the amount of inference involved on the part of the judges because their subjective judgment could bias the findings.

A)predictive
B)standard
C)content
D)concurrent
E)discriminate

Question 52

The utility of any test generally _____ as the selection ratio gets lower.

A)increases
B)decreases
C)remains the same
D)becomes zero
E)becomes negative

Question 53

The Americans with Disabilities Act _____.

A)protects individuals with physical disabilities but not mental disabilities
B)does not require an organization to make accommodations that cause undue hardship
C)demands affirmative action to increase representation of minorities
D)does not require that employers make reasonable accommodation for disabled individuals
E)prevents organizations from hiring someone whose disability prevents him or her from performing critical aspects of the job

Question 54

Which of the following legislations prohibit discrimination and mandates that employers take affirmative actions to hire qualified minority applicants?

A)Federal Tort Claims Act
B)Revenue Act of 1913
C)Executive order 11246
D)Federal Reserve Act
E)Thirteenth Amendment

Question 55

Which of the following acts allows the individual filing the complaint to have a jury decide whether he or she may recover punitive damages (in addition to lost wages and benefits)for emotional injuries caused by the discrimination?

A)Civil Rights Act of 1871
B)Age Discrimination in Employment Act
C)Americans with Disabilities Act
D)Civil Rights Act of 1991
E)Civil Rights Act of 1964

Question 56

The percentage of people chosen relative to the total number of people tested gives the _____ ratio.

A)break-even
B)furlough
C)retention
D)turnover
E)selection

Question 57

The degree to which the information provided by selection methods enhances the bottom-line effectiveness of the organization is known as the selection method's:

A)reliability.
B)validity.
C)generalizability.
D)utility.
E)legality.

Question 58

Which of the following forms of validation becomes relatively more attractive as the sample available for validation becomes smaller?

A)Predictive validation
B)Concurrent validation
C)Content validation
D)External validation
E)Criterion-related validation

Question 59

The Age Discrimination in Employment Act does not:

A)permit business necessity as a ground to avoid a guilty verdict.
B)protect younger workers.
C)allow for jury trials.
D)allow punitive damages.
E)permit promotions based performance

Question 60

The _____ protects individuals from discrimination based on race, color, sex, religion, and national origin with respect to hiring as well as compensation and working conditions.

A)False Claims Act
B)Civil Rights Act of 1991
C)Age Discrimination in Employment Act
D)Americans with Disabilities Act
E)Rehabilitation Act of 1973

Question 61

Which of the following refers to a person's capacity to understand and use written and spoken language?

A)Verbal comprehension
B)Associative ability
C)Reasoning ability
D)Quantitative ability
E)Interpersonal knowledge

Question 62

_____ tests assess main facets such as verbal comprehension, quantitative ability, and reasoning ability.

A)Cognitive ability
B)Physical ability
C)Personality
D)Psychomotor
E)Honesty

Question 63

_____ ability concerns the speed and accuracy with which one can solve arithmetic problems of all kinds.

A)Reasoning
B)Technical
C)Quantitative
D)Comprehension
E)Conception

Question 64

Executive order 11246 allows the government to _____.

A)deny payments to individual contractors based on the government's availability of money
B)eliminate affirmative action to prevent reverse discrimination in governmental jobs
C)form and implement laws that are not specified in the constitution
D)suspend all business with a contractor while an investigation is being conducted
E)undertake affirmative action to ensure representation of African Americans in various jobs

Question 65

The concept of _____ suggests that similar groups of people whose scores differ by only a small amount all be treated as having the same score.

A)bidding
B)tracking
C)customization
D)looping
E)banding

Question 66

The "direct threat" clause is a part of the _____.

A)Civil Rights Act of 1871
B)Rehabilitation Act of 1973
C)No-FEAR Act
D)Lloyd - La Follette Act
E)American with Disabilities Act

Question 67

Andrew has an adjusting personality if he is:

A)imaginative and artistically sensitive.
B)talkative and expressive.
C)emotionally stable, secured, and content.
D)curious, imaginative and playful.
E)organized and achievement-oriented.

Question 68

Which of the following scenarios is an apt example of a future-oriented situational interview?

A)Ashley was asked to tell about a time when she had to make a hard decision and how she handled the process.
B)Edgar was asked to tell what he would do if he saw one of his colleagues stealing from the office supply.
C)Brian was asked to describe the way he handled an angry customer in the past.
D)Catherine was asked to speak about an accomplishment that gives her the most pride.
E)Dave was asked to discuss the plans that he has made in order to achieve his career goals.

Question 69

_____ ability refers to a person's capacity to invent solutions to many diverse problems.

A)Quantitative
B)Reasoning
C)Technical
D)Comprehension
E)Conception

Question 70

Which of the following scenarios is an appropriate example of an experience-based situational interview?

A)Jerry was asked to describe the steps he would take if he disagreed on the way his supervisor handled a given situation.
B)Karl was asked to describe the course of action he would take to handle complaints regarding one of his colleagues who was going through some major personal issue which no one else knew about.
C)Fiona was asked to give an example of a situation in which she successfully showed her leadership skills.
D)Gina was asked to speak about the steps she would take if she knew that one of her colleagues was pretending to be ill just to enjoy some time off.
E)Harold was asked to describe the steps he would take in order to convince his not convinced team-mates about a new sales plan.

Question 71

_____ tests include tests such as muscular endurance, cardiovascular endurance, and flexibility tests.

A)Verbal comprehension
B)Quantitative ability
C)Reasoning ability
D)Physical ability
E)Cognitive skill

Question 72

A person who is agreeable in nature will be _____.

A)unsociable and gregarious
B)depressed and secured
C)dependable and unorganized
D)courteous and trusting
E)narrow-minded and imaginative

Question 73

Which of the following concepts is used to describe people who are especially effective in fluid and socially intensive contexts?

A)Crystallized intelligence
B)Fluid intelligence
C)Emotional intelligence
D)Dispositional affect
E)Intelligence quotient

Question 74

A person who is open to experiences will be:

A)talkative, emotionally stable, and unorganized.
B)curious, imaginative, and artistically sensitive.
C)sociable, content, and intolerant.
D)gregarious, secure, and uncooperative.
E)assertive, nondepressed, and unforgiving.

Question 75

Which of the following personality dimensions is associated with sociable, gregarious, assertive, and talkative individuals?

A)Adjustment
B)Extroversion
C)Agreeableness
D)Conscientiousness
E)Openness to experience

Question 76

A(n)_____ is defined as a dialogue initiated by one or more persons to gather information and evaluate the qualifications of an applicant for employment.

A)selection interview
B)application bank
C)physical ability test
D)cognitive ability test
E)assessment center

Question 77

_____ tests categorize individuals by what they are like.

A)Personality
B)Work sample
C)Physical ability
D)Psychomotor
E)Cognitive ability

Question 78

Executive orders are monitored by the:

A)Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.
B)Employment Standards Administration of the Department of Labor.
C)Employment and Training Administration.
D)Department of Commerce.
E)Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs.

Question 79

Which of the following statements is true of situational interviews?

A)Future-oriented interview is more valid than experience-based interview.
B)Future-oriented items reduce some forms of impression management such as ingratiation better than experience-based items.
C)Situational interviews require the candidate to perform a piece of work or accomplish a task.
D)These interviews are particularly effective when assessing sensitive issues dealing with the honesty and integrity of candidates.
E)Using multiple interviewers in such interviews leads to more subjective errors than using one interviewer.

Question 80

Which of the following personality dimensions is typically associated with a person who is organized, achievement oriented and persevering?

A)Adjustment
B)Extroversion
C)Agreeableness
D)Conscientiousness
E)Openness to experience