Deck 2: Biological Beginnings

Question 1

The food-scarce environment of our ancestors likely led to humans' propensity to gorge when food is available and to crave high-caloric foods-a trait that might lead to an epidemic of obesity when food is plentiful. This illustrates how:

A) socialization influences the development of behavior and cognitive skills in human beings.
B) evolved mechanisms are not always adaptive in contemporary society.
C) organisms pass on characteristics they had acquired during their lifetime to their offspring.
D) the benefits of evolutionary selection decrease with age.

Answer 1

evolved mechanisms are not always adaptive in contemporary society.

Question 2

During _____, a cell of the testes in men or ovaries in women duplicates its chromosomes and then divides twice, thus forming four cells, each of which has only half the genetic material of the parent cell.

A) meiosis
B) mitosis
C) osmosis
D) fertilization

Answer 2

meiosis

Question 3

_____, the units of hereditary information, are short segments of DNA. They direct cells to reproduce themselves and to assemble proteins.

A) Genes
B) Chromosomes
C) RNA
D) Ribosomes

Answer 3

Genes

Question 4

_____ is a stage in reproduction whereby an egg and a sperm fuse to create a single cell.

A) Fertilization
B) Osmosis
C) Meiosis
D) Mitosis

Question 5

Which of the following statements about the activity of genes is true?

A) Genes are not collaborative.
B) A single gene codes for a single, specific protein.
C) Genetic expression is unaffected by environmental factors.
D) Events inside of the cell can excite or inhibit genetic expression.

Question 6

During the process of _____, the cell's nucleus-including the chromosomes-duplicates itself and the cell divides resulting in the formation of two cells.

A) meiosis
B) osmosis
C) fertilization
D) mitosis

Question 7

According to evolutionary developmental psychologists, many evolved psychological mechanisms are _____. That is, the mechanisms apply only to a specific aspect of a person's makeup.

A) domain-specific
B) maladjusted
C) non-operational
D) general purpose devices

Question 8

_____ is the way an individual's genotype is expressed in observable and measurable characteristics.

A) RNA
B) DNA
C) Phenotype
D) Stereotype

Question 9

Which of the following is true of mitosis in humans?

A) Mitosis is the cellular reproduction occurs in the sperm and egg cells.
B) Mitosis results in the formation of four new cells.
C) Mitocis results in the formation of new cells with 23 pairs of chromosomes.
D) Mitosis results in the formation of three new cells.

Question 10

_____ genes are those that make the individual more vulnerable to specific diseases or acceleration of aging.

A) Susceptibility
B) Longevity
C) Vulnerability
D) Mutated

Question 11

Erin is 90 years old. She has relatively good health, and is fully mobile. Most of Erin's blood relatives to live to a ripe, old age. Which of the following genes might be responsible for this?

A) Susceptibility genes
B) Longevity genes
C) Vulnerability genes
D) Mutated genes

Question 12

_____ genes are those that make the individual less vulnerable to certain diseases and be more likely to live to an older age.

A) Susceptibility
B) Longevity
C) Vulnerability
D) Mutated

Question 13

During fertilization, an egg and a sperm fuse to create a single cell called a _____.

A) blastocyst
B) fetus
C) gamete
D) zygote

Question 14

A cell which contains 12 pairs of chromosomes, divides by mitosis to form two new cells. How many pairs of chromosomes does each new cell contain?

A) 12
B) 23
C) 6
D) 48

Question 15

_____ are the building blocks of cells as well as the regulators that direct the body's processes.

A) Genes
B) Proteins
C) Ribosomes
D) DNA

Question 16

Emma and Anna are identical twins who were adopted by different families a few weeks after birth. Although genetically identical, they grew up with different physical and psychological characteristics. For example, though both inherited a tendency to grow large, Anna was slim and athletic due to the active lifestyle practiced in her adoptive family. This variability can be explained by how:

A) each zygote is unique.
B) longevity genes can make an individual less vulnerable to certain diseases.
C) for each genotype, a range of phenotypes can be expressed .
D) mutated genes can be a source of genetic variability.

Question 17

A mistake by the cellular machinery, or damage from an environmental agent such as radiation, may produce a _____, which is a permanently altered segment of DNA.

A) susceptibility gene
B) vulnerability gene
C) longevity gene
D) mutated gene

Question 18

The nucleus of each human cell contains _____, which are threadlike structures made up of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).

A) mitochondria
B) ribosomes
C) chromosomes
D) mesosomes

Question 19

Ethel is 50-years-old but appears much more aged in appearance. Most of Ethel's relatives don't live past the age of 60. Which of the following genes are responsible for the accelerated aging that is observed in Ethel and her family members?

A) Susceptibility genes
B) Longevity genes
C) Vulnerability genes
D) Mutated genes

Question 20

In human beings, by the end of meiosis, each egg or sperm has _____ chromosomes.

A) 46 paired
B) 23 unpaired
C) 23 paired
D) 46 unpaired

Question 21

Marly describes her friend, Gina, as having blonde hair, green eyes, and fair skin with freckles. Marly has described Gina's _____.

A) genotype
B) genetic imprint
C) phenotype
D) X-linked inheritance

Question 22

Tristan has a genetic disorder that results from an abnormality in the X chromosome, which becomes constricted and often breaks. His doctor told Tristan's mother that he has:

A) Fragile X syndrome.
B) XYY syndrome.
C) Turner syndrome.
D) Tay-Sach's disease.

Question 23

Mary and Jim are expecting a child and prenatal diagnostic procedures have confirmed that the fetus has _____, a neural tube disorder that causes brain and spine abnormalities. Their physician has explained that this gene-linked abnormality could be treated with corrective surgery at birth, orthopedic devices, and physical or medical therapy.

A) spina bifida
B) Tay-Sachs disease
C) PKU
D) Huntington's disease

Question 24

Jason was born with _____. The doctor tells his parents that this genetic disorder occurred because he has an extra copy of chromosome 21.

A) fragile X syndrome
B) Klinefelter disease
C) Down syndrome
D) Tay Sach's disease

Question 25

Which of the following is true of phenylketonuria?

A) It results from a recessive gene.
B) It is a chromosomal disorder.
C) It results in death by 5 years of age.
D) It is caused by an accumulation of lipids in the nervous system.

Question 26

Which of the following is a gene-linked abnormality?

A) Down syndrome.
B) Phenylketonuria (PKU).
C) Turner syndrome
D) Klinefelter syndrome

Question 27

In some cases, one gene of a pair always exerts its effects, overriding the potential influence of the other gene. This is the _____ principle.

A) sex-linked genes
B) dominant-recessive genes
C) genetic imprinting
D) polygenic inheritance

Question 28

Carrie's parents both have brown hair. However, Carrie gets genes for blond hair from both parents, and as result she has blonde hair. This indicates that the gene for blonde hair is a(n):

A) recessive gene.
B) dominant gene.
C) susceptibility gene.
D) longevity gene.

Question 29

Mary's mother has blonde hair and her father has brown hair. Mary has a gene for brown hair and a gene for blonde hair. She has brown hair. This indicates that the gene for brown hair is a(n) _____.

A) dominant gene
B) recessive gene
C) susceptible gene
D) longevity gene

Question 30

Which of the following women has the highest probability of giving birth to a child with Down syndrome?

A) Sarah, a 21-year-old Asian woman
B) Jane, a 41-year-old Euro-American woman
C) Ella, a 27-year-old African American woman
D) Destiny, a 38-year-old African American woman

Question 31

Which of the following is true of Down syndrome?

A) It primarily occurs in African American children.
B) It occurs when genetic imprinting goes awry.
C) Its symptoms include retardation of motor and mental abilities.
D) It is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome Y.

Question 32

Angelique has a chromosomal disorder characterized by a missing X chromosome making her XO instead of XX. Angelique's doctors have diagnosed her with _____.

A) Fragile X syndrome
B) The XYY syndrome
C) Klinefelter syndrome
D) Turner syndrome

Question 33

Turner syndrome occurs exclusively in:

A) females.
B) males.
C) people of Middle Eastern descent.
D) people of Jewish descent.

Question 34

Klinefelter syndrome affects:

A) only males.
B) only females.
C) both males and females equally.
D) more females than males.

Question 35

A recessive gene exerts its influence only if:

A) both genes in a pair are recessive.
B) it is the stronger gene.
C) the environment is right.
D) the dominant gene is also present in the pair.

Question 36

Paul suffers from hemophilia. Suggest an appropriate treatment option for Paul's condition.

A) Insulin
B) Blood transfusions/injections
C) Physical therapy
D) Corrective surgery at birth

Question 37

Which of the following is an example of chromosomal abnormality that occurs when whole chromosomes do not separate properly during meiosis?

A) Down syndrome
B) Hemophilia
C) Huntington's disease
D) Sickle-cell anemia

Question 38

Samantha has been diagnosed with _____, which is a glandular dysfunction that interferes with mucus production.

A) cystic fibrosis
B) Huntington's disease
C) PKU
D) Tay-Sachs disease

Question 39

Clark's genotype contains a dominant gene for brown eye color and recessive gene for blue eye color. According to the dominant-recessive gene principle, which of the following phenotypes is most likely to be observed in Clark?

A) black eyes
B) blue eyes
C) grey eyes
D) brown eyes

Question 40

Tamera has a genetic disorder where her red blood cells take on a hook shape instead of the normal disk shape. The doctors tell Tamera's parents that she has _____, and that this condition also provides her with a resistance to malaria.

A) Tay-Sach's disease
B) sickle-cell anemia
C) leukemia
D) Huntington's disease

Question 41

Brad is an athletic boy who is on every sport team in school. Stephen loves math and is part of his school's math club. These instances reflect _____ correlations that occur when children seek out environments that they find compatible and stimulating.

A) passive genotype-environment
B) evocative genotype-environment
C) active (niche-picking) genotype-environment
D) influential genotype-environment

Question 42

Benny has been diagnosed with a gene-linked abnormality characterized by deceleration of mental and physical development caused by an accumulation of lipids in the nervous system. He has been put on medication and a special diet, but his family has been told that he will probably not live beyond the age of five. Benny is suffering from:

A) spina bifida.
B) Tay-Sachs disease.
C) phenylketonuria.
D) Huntington's disease.

Question 43

Lindsay's body does not produce enough insulin, causing an abnormal metabolism of sugar. She is receiving insulin treatment. Lindsay has:

A) spina bifida.
B) hemophilia.
C) PKU.
D) diabetes.

Question 44

_____ is the field that seeks to discover the influence of heredity and environment on individual differences in human traits and development.

A) Behavior influence
B) Behavior therapy
C) Behavior genetics
D) Behavior development

Question 45

Which of the following is a feature of the embryonic period of prenatal development?

A) The creation of the fertilized egg
B) Formation of the blastocyst
C) The attachment of the zygote to the uterine wall
D) Formation of support systems for cells

Question 46

The creation of the fertilized egg takes place in the _____ period of prenatal development.

A) fetal
B) embryonic
C) implantation
D) germinal

Question 47

Charlie is a cooperative, attentive child and is a favorite at home and school and receives positive, instructive responses from adults. This is indicative of a(n):

A) passive genotype-environment correlation.
B) evocative genotype-environment correlation.
C) influential genotype-environment correlation.
D) active (niche-picking) genotype-environment correlation.

Question 48

The _____ view states that development is the result of an ongoing, bidirectional interchange between heredity and the environment.

A) epigenetic
B) biosocial
C) sociogenetic
D) congenital

Question 49

The _____ is the outer layer of cells of the blastocyst that later provides nutrition and support for the embryo.

A) ectoderm
B) perineum
C) cytocyst
D) trophoblast

Question 50

Wren is 4 weeks pregnant. Which of the following stages of prenatal development is Wren currently in?

A) Embryonic
B) Fetal
C) Placental
D) Germinal

Question 51

Timothy is a quiet 6-year-old who is usually withdrawn in class. As a result, he does not receive much attention from his peers and mostly plays by himself. According to Sandra Scarr, this is an example of a(n) _____.

A) passive genotype-environment correlation
B) active (niche-picking) genotype-environment correlation
C) gene x environment interaction
D) evocative genotype-environment correlation

Question 52

Rachel is in the first period of prenatal development. Even though she doesn't know it, she is in the _____ stage of prenatal development.

A) fetal period
B) embryonic period
C) implantation period
D) germinal period

Question 53

Joshua, 2, has been diagnosed with _____, a blood disorder that limits the body's oxygen supply and can cause joint swelling and heart and kidney failure. This genetic disorder can be treated through penicillin, pain medication, antibiotics and blood transfusions, and his doctor has indicated that a study named Baby HUG may offer a better drug in the future.

A) spina bifida
B) Tay-Sachs disease
C) sickle-cell anemia
D) Huntington's disease

Question 54

_____ is the interaction of a specific measured variation in the DNA and a specific measured aspect of the environment.

A) Heredity-environment correlation
B) Evocative genotype-environment correlation
C) Gene × environment (G × E) interaction
D) Passive genotype-environment interaction

Question 55

Rachel loves to read books and also encourages her daughter to read by regularly taking her to the local library and buying her lots of books. Rachel's daughter is now an avid reader. This reflects a _____ correlation.

A) passive genotype-environment
B) evocative genotype-environment
C) influential genotype-environment
D) active (niche-picking) genotype-environment

Question 56

Tracy's parents are avid sports fans. Since she was a child, they took her to numerous baseball and football games, and Tracy regularly watched the sports channel with her dad. When she was old enough, her parents made her join the little league team at her school and she performed well. This is an example of a(n):

A) evocative genotype-environment correlation.
B) active (niche-picking) genotype-environment correlation.
C) passive genotype-environment correlation.
D) gene-gene correlation.

Question 57

Which of the following is an example of a passive genotype-environment correlation?

A) Uncooperative, distractible children receive more unpleasant and disciplinary action from parents and teachers.
B) Outgoing children tend to seek out social contexts in which to interact with people.
C) Parents who have a genetic predisposition to be musically inclined encourage their children to learn how to play a music instrument.
D) Infants who smile more receive more attention from individuals in their social environment.

Question 58

_____ correlations occur because a child's genetically influenced characteristics elicit certain types of environments.

A) Passive genotype-environment
B) Evocative genotype-environment
C) Influential genotype-environment
D) Active (niche-picking) genotype-environment

Question 59

_____ refers to the attachment of the blastocyst to the uterine wall.

A) Implantation
B) Conception
C) Fertilization
D) Involution

Question 60

Prenatal development can be divided into three periods, which of the following is in the correct order from conception to birth?

A) Fertile; embryonic; postterm
B) Preterm; germinal; postterm
C) Gestational; germinal; postnatal
D) Germinal; embryonic; fetal

Question 61

Petra is at the fourth month of her pregnancy. Her unborn child is now referred to as a _____.

A) gamete
B) zygote
C) fetus
D) embryo

Question 62

By the time babies are born, they have approximately _____ neurons.

A) 10 million
B) 200 million
C) 1 billion
D) 100 billion

Question 63

A strategy that can help to prevent neural tube defects is for women to take:

A) food rich in vitamin C.
B) adequate amounts of the B vitamin folic acid.
C) medication for diabetes.
D) food that is not contaminated with mercury.

Question 64

Which of the following organs or systems develop FIRST in prenatal development?

A) Visual system
B) Spinal cord
C) Urogenital system
D) Liver

Question 65

A group of tissues in which small blood vessels from the mother and offspring intertwine but do not connect is the _____.

A) amnion
B) placenta
C) embryo
D) umbilical cord

Question 66

The outermost layer of the embryo is called the _____.

A) mesoderm
B) cytoderm
C) endoderm
D) ectoderm

Question 67

The _____ prevents large molecules like red blood cells and harmful substances, such as most bacteria and maternal wastes, from entering the fetus.

A) umbilical cord
B) placental wall
C) amniotic sheath
D) ectoderm

Question 68

The _____ is a layer of the embryo, which will become the circulatory system, bones, muscles, excretory system, and reproductive system.

A) endoderm
B) ectoderm
C) mesoderm
D) epidermis

Question 69

The _____ is a layer of the embryo, which will become the nervous system and brain, sensory receptors, and skin parts.

A) mesoderm
B) ectoderm
C) trophoblast
D) endoderm

Question 70

The _____ provides an environment that is temperature and humidity controlled, as well as shockproof.

A) placental wall
B) pericardial fluid
C) umbilical cord
D) amniotic fluid

Question 71

The embryo's _____ develops into the digestive and respiratory systems.

A) ectoderm
B) endoderm
C) trophoblast
D) mesoderm

Question 72

The fetus that Calista is carrying has reached the age of viability, meaning that it has a chance of surviving outside of the womb. Therefore, it can be inferred that Calista is _____ weeks pregnant.

A) 4 to 8
B) 16 to 18
C) 24 to 25
D) 10 to 12

Question 73

The _____ consists of three layers of cells: the endoderm, the mesoderm, and the ectoderm.

A) blastocyst
B) fetus
C) embryo
D) trophoblast

Question 74

The _____ is like a bag or an envelope and contains a clear fluid in which the developing embryo floats.

A) placenta
B) umbilical cord
C) amnion
D) cervix

Question 75

The structure that contains two arteries and one vein, and connects the developing embryo to the mother's body, is called the _____.

A) amnion
B) placenta
C) embryo
D) umbilical cord

Question 76

The inner layer of cells of the embryo is referred to as the:

A) mesoderm.
B) epidermis.
C) endometrium.
D) endoderm.

Question 77

Which of the following substances is a large molecule that would NOT be able to pass through the placental wall?

A) Salt
B) Water
C) Hormones
D) Carbon dioxide

Question 78

The middle layer of the embryo is called the _____.

A) mesoderm
B) cytoderm
C) endoderm
D) ectoderm

Question 79

Which of the following is a small molecule that would be able to pass through the placental wall?

A) Red blood cells
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Hormones
D) Maternal wastes

Question 80

Neuronal migration occurs at approximately _____ weeks after conception.

A) 1 to 8
B) 3 to 12
C) 4 to 15
D) 6 to 24