Deck 6: Selecting Employees and Placing Them in Jobs
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Deck 6: Selecting Employees and Placing Them in Jobs
1
Selection procedures that provide economic value greater than the cost of using them are said to have utility.
True
Explanation: The Civil Rights Act of 1991 forbids the use of race or sex norming.
Explanation: The Civil Rights Act of 1991 forbids the use of race or sex norming.
2
Predictive validation is less time consuming and the easiest to administer.
False
Explanation: Aptitude tests assess how well a person can learn or acquire skills and abilities.
Explanation: Aptitude tests assess how well a person can learn or acquire skills and abilities.
3
Under the ADA,when an employer makes hiring decisions,he is permitted to use employment physical exams that could reveal a psychological or physical disability.
False
Explanation: In 1988, the passage of the Polygraph Act banned the use of polygraphs for screening job candidates.
Explanation: In 1988, the passage of the Polygraph Act banned the use of polygraphs for screening job candidates.
4
Most organizations check references as soon as they receive the candidate's application form.
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5
A predictive criterion-related validation strategy correlates job incumbents' scores on a test with existing measures of their performance.
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6
The process of selecting employees remains constant for all organizations and for all jobs.
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7
In a nondirective interview,the interviewer asks questions from an established set of questions.
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8
Review of résumés is most valid when the content of the résumés is evaluated in terms of the elements of a job description.
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9
Content validation is most suitable for measuring abstract qualities such as intelligence or leadership ability.
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10
Race norming refers to establishing different norms for hiring members of different racial groups.
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11
The degree to which a measure is free from random error refers to its validity.
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12
The results of a personality test are the most reliable.
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13
An application form can request information regarding an applicant's marital status and race.
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14
The Polygraph Act legalized the use of polygraph tests for employment screening in most organizations.
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15
The Civil Rights Act of 1991 encourages the use of race norming as a selection tool.
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16
A reliable measurement generates consistent results.
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17
Achievement tests assess how well a person can acquire skills and abilities
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18
Equal employment opportunity laws affect the kinds of information an organization may gather on application forms and in interviews.
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19
Aptitude tests measure a person's existing knowledge and skills.
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20
The Fair Credit Reporting Act requires that employers obtain a candidate's consent before downloading his/her résumé from an on-line job site.
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21
For most companies,the first step in the personnel selection process is _____.
A) verifying the applicants' qualifications through reference and background checks
B) negotiating with the employee regarding salary and benefits
C) screening the applications to see who meet the basic requirements for the job
D) administering tests and reviewing work samples to rate the candidates' abilities
E) inviting candidates with the best abilities to the organization for one or more interviews
A) verifying the applicants' qualifications through reference and background checks
B) negotiating with the employee regarding salary and benefits
C) screening the applications to see who meet the basic requirements for the job
D) administering tests and reviewing work samples to rate the candidates' abilities
E) inviting candidates with the best abilities to the organization for one or more interviews
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22
The process through which organizations make decisions about who will or will not be allowed to join the organization is referred to as _____.
A) recruitment
B) job analysis
C) forecasting
D) trend analysis
E) personnel selection
A) recruitment
B) job analysis
C) forecasting
D) trend analysis
E) personnel selection
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23
The _____ of an employment test is indicated by the extent to which the test scores relate to the actual job performance.
A) reliability
B) validity
C) generalizability
D) utility
E) dependability
A) reliability
B) validity
C) generalizability
D) utility
E) dependability
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24
A construction firm is in need of a construction superintendent,whose primary responsibilities involve organizing,supervising,and inspecting the work of several subcontractors.The firm administers a construction-error recognition test,where an applicant enters a shed that has 25 construction errors and where he/she is asked to record as many of these problems as can be detected.What type of validity is being established in this case?
A) Concurrent validity
B) Construct validity
C) Content validity
D) Representative validity
E) Predictive
A) Concurrent validity
B) Construct validity
C) Content validity
D) Representative validity
E) Predictive
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25
To test the validity of the selection test for advanced widget designers,Correll-Techno Inc.administers the test to the present widget makers in the company.The test results are then compared with the employees' latest performance appraisal scores.In this instance,what type of validation does Correll-Techno implement?
A) Predictive validation
B) Concurrent validation
C) Content validation
D) Construct validation
E) Diagnostic validation
A) Predictive validation
B) Concurrent validation
C) Content validation
D) Construct validation
E) Diagnostic validation
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26
_____ validity is a measure of validity based on showing a substantial correlation between test scores and job performance scores.
A) Criterion-related
B) Diagnostic
C) Content
D) Convergent
E) Construct
A) Criterion-related
B) Diagnostic
C) Content
D) Convergent
E) Construct
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27
Interviewing is considered the most accurate basis for making a selection decision.
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28
The multiple-hurdle model is based on a process of increasing the number of candidates at each stage of the selection process.
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29
At which stage in the selection process are supervisors and team members often involved?
A) Administering tests
B) Receiving résumés from various sources
C) Screening applications
D) Reference and background checks
E) Interviewing candidates
A) Administering tests
B) Receiving résumés from various sources
C) Screening applications
D) Reference and background checks
E) Interviewing candidates
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30
Predictive validation is more accurate than concurrent validation because _____.
A) the research administers tests to people who currently hold the job
B) test performance is influenced by firsthand experience with the job
C) the group is more likely to include people who perform poorly on the test
D) it is less time-consuming and relatively simple
E) test takers tend to be less motivated to do well on the tests
A) the research administers tests to people who currently hold the job
B) test performance is influenced by firsthand experience with the job
C) the group is more likely to include people who perform poorly on the test
D) it is less time-consuming and relatively simple
E) test takers tend to be less motivated to do well on the tests
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31
Which of the following is true about predictive validation?
A) It is the least effective method of measuring validity.
B) It uses the test scores of all applicants and looks for a relationship between the scores and future performance.
C) It involves administering a test to people who currently hold a job and comparing their scores to existing measures of job performance.
D) It is the quickest and easiest method compared to other ways of measuring validity.
E) It permits an employees' firsthand experience with the job to influence his performance in the test.
A) It is the least effective method of measuring validity.
B) It uses the test scores of all applicants and looks for a relationship between the scores and future performance.
C) It involves administering a test to people who currently hold a job and comparing their scores to existing measures of job performance.
D) It is the quickest and easiest method compared to other ways of measuring validity.
E) It permits an employees' firsthand experience with the job to influence his performance in the test.
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32
A correlation coefficient of -1.0 between two sets of numbers indicates _____.
A) a complete lack of any correlation between the two sets
B) that when one set of numbers goes up, so does the other set
C) that when one set of numbers goes up, the other set goes down
D) a partial correlation between the two sets
E) an indefinite relationship between the two sets
A) a complete lack of any correlation between the two sets
B) that when one set of numbers goes up, so does the other set
C) that when one set of numbers goes up, the other set goes down
D) a partial correlation between the two sets
E) an indefinite relationship between the two sets
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33
The _____ of a type of measurement indicates how free that measurement is from random error.
A) reliability
B) validity
C) generalizability
D) utility
E) verifiability
A) reliability
B) validity
C) generalizability
D) utility
E) verifiability
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34
What does a correlation coefficient of 0 indicate?
A) A perfect positive relationship
B) A perfect negative relationship
C) A partial correlation
D) No correlation
E) An indefinite correlation
A) A perfect positive relationship
B) A perfect negative relationship
C) A partial correlation
D) No correlation
E) An indefinite correlation
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35
Which of the following best describes content validity?
A) It is the extent to which something provides economic value greater than its cost.
B) It is the extent to which a measurement is free from random error.
C) It is the consistency between the test items or problems and the kinds of situations or problems that occur on the job.
D) It is the consistency between a high score on a test and high level of a construct such as intelligence or leadership ability, as well as between mastery of this construct and successful performance of the job.
E) It is the measure of validity based on showing a substantial correlation between test scores and job performance scores.
A) It is the extent to which something provides economic value greater than its cost.
B) It is the extent to which a measurement is free from random error.
C) It is the consistency between the test items or problems and the kinds of situations or problems that occur on the job.
D) It is the consistency between a high score on a test and high level of a construct such as intelligence or leadership ability, as well as between mastery of this construct and successful performance of the job.
E) It is the measure of validity based on showing a substantial correlation between test scores and job performance scores.
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36
A reliable test would be one for which scores by people with similar attributes have a correlation close to _____.
A) 1.0
B) 0
C) -1.0.
D) -10.0
E) ∞
A) 1.0
B) 0
C) -1.0.
D) -10.0
E) ∞
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37
In a behavior description interview,the interviewer asks the candidate how he or she handled a type of situation in the past.
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38
Interviews are the least expensive method of employee selection.
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39
Usually a supervisor makes the final employee selection decision.
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40
Martha Stevens is the HR manager of C-Soft Inc.,a software company located in New York.She wants to establish the validity of a test designed for computer technicians using a predictive criterion-related validation strategy.According to this validation,Martha must administer the test to _____.
A) at least half the present computer technicians in C-Soft
B) people doing similar jobs in other companies
C) people applying for computer technician jobs in C-Soft
D) only current computer technicians in C-Soft who are performing at acceptable levels
E) a random selection of computer technicians currently employed at C-Soft
A) at least half the present computer technicians in C-Soft
B) people doing similar jobs in other companies
C) people applying for computer technician jobs in C-Soft
D) only current computer technicians in C-Soft who are performing at acceptable levels
E) a random selection of computer technicians currently employed at C-Soft
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41
Evan Smith is the HR manager of a publishing company.He wants to know if a certain test of cognitive ability,used in the advertising industry,can be successfully used in his organization.In other words,he wants to know if this test is a(n)_____ method of personnel selection.
A) substitutable
B) evaluative
C) practical
D) generalizable
E) nondirective
A) substitutable
B) evaluative
C) practical
D) generalizable
E) nondirective
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42
Which act prohibits preferential treatment in favor of minority groups?
A) The Americans with Disabilities Act of 199191
B) The Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986
C) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
D) The Civil Rights Act of 1991
E) The Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938
A) The Americans with Disabilities Act of 199191
B) The Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986
C) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
D) The Civil Rights Act of 1991
E) The Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938
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43
Which of the following details need to be asked in an application form to gather information about suitable candidates?
A) Marital status
B) History of disabilities
C) Number of children
D) Educational background
E) Applicant's race
A) Marital status
B) History of disabilities
C) Number of children
D) Educational background
E) Applicant's race
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44
A selection method that is valid in other contexts beyond the context in which it was developed is said to be _____.
A) reliable.
B) generalizable.
C) practical.
D) utilitarian.
E) dependable.
A) reliable.
B) generalizable.
C) practical.
D) utilitarian.
E) dependable.
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45
If a former employer gives a glowing statement about a candidate and the new employer later learns of misconduct on the part of the employee during his/her previous employment,the new employer may sue the former for _____.
A) negligence
B) misrepresentation
C) defamation
D) misappropriation
E) libel
A) negligence
B) misrepresentation
C) defamation
D) misappropriation
E) libel
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46
Methods that provide economic value greater than the cost of using them are said to have _____.
A) reliability
B) utility
C) validity
D) generalizability
E) dependability
A) reliability
B) utility
C) validity
D) generalizability
E) dependability
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47
If a person who is the reference gives negative information about the job candidate,there is a chance the candidate will claim _____,meaning the person damaged the applicant's reputation by making statements that cannot be proved truthful.
A) defamation
B) misappropriation
C) fraud
D) misrepresentation
E) negligence
A) defamation
B) misappropriation
C) fraud
D) misrepresentation
E) negligence
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48
Which of the following is a permissible question for job applications and interviews?
A) How would you feel about working for someone younger than you?
B) Are you a citizen of the United States?
C) What religious holidays do you observe?
D) Where were you born?
E) Will you need any reasonable accommodation for this hiring process
A) How would you feel about working for someone younger than you?
B) Are you a citizen of the United States?
C) What religious holidays do you observe?
D) Where were you born?
E) Will you need any reasonable accommodation for this hiring process
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49
Ricky Jones,a 33-year old unemployed software engineer,had applied for a job in SeaTech Inc.,a Florida-based software company.He had mentioned his former project manager as his reference in the application form.But he was rejected soon after the HR of SeaTech called his former manager and learnt that Ricky was involved in an issue of sexual misconduct.Sensing this to be the reason for his rejection at SeaTech,Ricky threatened to sue his former manager on charges of _____.
A) misappropriation
B) fraud
C) misrepresentation
D) defamation
E) negligence
A) misappropriation
B) fraud
C) misrepresentation
D) defamation
E) negligence
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50
Which of the following is a disadvantage of using résumés as a source of information about job applicants?
A) It is a relatively expensive method of gathering information.
B) It does not allow applicants to highlight accomplishments.
C) Review of résumés is least valid when the content of the résumés is evaluated in terms of the elements of a job description.
D) It is biased in favor of the employer.
E) The content of the information is controlled by applicants.
A) It is a relatively expensive method of gathering information.
B) It does not allow applicants to highlight accomplishments.
C) Review of résumés is least valid when the content of the résumés is evaluated in terms of the elements of a job description.
D) It is biased in favor of the employer.
E) The content of the information is controlled by applicants.
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51
Which of the following holds good under the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986?
A) Employers must verify and maintain records on the legal rights of applicants to work in the United States.
B) Employers must file a completed Form I-9 with the Immigration and Naturalization Service and retain the documents for at least ten years.
C) Employers can pay lower wages to the immigrant workers.
D) Employers must verify the legal age of employees who do not hold American citizenship.
E) Employers are allowed to discriminate against persons on the basis of citizenship status.
A) Employers must verify and maintain records on the legal rights of applicants to work in the United States.
B) Employers must file a completed Form I-9 with the Immigration and Naturalization Service and retain the documents for at least ten years.
C) Employers can pay lower wages to the immigrant workers.
D) Employers must verify the legal age of employees who do not hold American citizenship.
E) Employers are allowed to discriminate against persons on the basis of citizenship status.
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52
Employers use application forms for all of the following reasons EXCEPT that:
A) they are a low-cost way to gather basic data from many applicants.
B) they ensure that the organization has certain standard categories of information.
C) they are not subject to equal employment opportunity standards.
D) they allow the employer to keep up-to-date records of job applicants.
E) they enable organizations to rank applicants.
A) they are a low-cost way to gather basic data from many applicants.
B) they ensure that the organization has certain standard categories of information.
C) they are not subject to equal employment opportunity standards.
D) they allow the employer to keep up-to-date records of job applicants.
E) they enable organizations to rank applicants.
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53
The use of a neutral-appearing selection method that damages a protected group is _____.
A) legal if the employer has a turnover of less than $100,000
B) legal if the company using the selection method has 100 or more employees
C) legal if the employer can show that there is a business necessity for using that method
D) illegal and prohibited under all circumstances
E) legal if the company using the selection method operates in the software industry
A) legal if the employer has a turnover of less than $100,000
B) legal if the company using the selection method has 100 or more employees
C) legal if the employer can show that there is a business necessity for using that method
D) illegal and prohibited under all circumstances
E) legal if the company using the selection method operates in the software industry
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54
Which of the following is true according to the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)of 1991?
A) The employer can ask preemployment questions to investigate disabilities.
B) The interviewer is prohibited from asking a candidate if he/she can meet the attendance requirements for the job.
C) The interviewer is permitted to ask the candidate the number of sick leaves he/she took at his/her previous job.
D) The employer is permitted to use, for hiring decisions, employment physical exams that could reveal a psychological or physical disability.
E) Employers are required to make "reasonable accommodation" to disabled individuals.
A) The employer can ask preemployment questions to investigate disabilities.
B) The interviewer is prohibited from asking a candidate if he/she can meet the attendance requirements for the job.
C) The interviewer is permitted to ask the candidate the number of sick leaves he/she took at his/her previous job.
D) The employer is permitted to use, for hiring decisions, employment physical exams that could reveal a psychological or physical disability.
E) Employers are required to make "reasonable accommodation" to disabled individuals.
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55
Which of the following is an impermissible question for job applications and interviews?
A) What is your full name?
B) Have you ever been convicted of a crime?
C) What was your major in college?
D) Do you have any disabilities?
E) Can you meet the requirements of the work schedule?
A) What is your full name?
B) Have you ever been convicted of a crime?
C) What was your major in college?
D) Do you have any disabilities?
E) Can you meet the requirements of the work schedule?
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56
Generally,the organization checks references _____.
A) only if it believes the information provided by the applicant is incorrect
B) immediately after the applicant submits a résumé
C) after it has determined that the applicant is a finalist for the job
D) because it is a legal requirement under EEO laws
E) of all applicants to a job
A) only if it believes the information provided by the applicant is incorrect
B) immediately after the applicant submits a résumé
C) after it has determined that the applicant is a finalist for the job
D) because it is a legal requirement under EEO laws
E) of all applicants to a job
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57
Review of résumés is most valid when the content of the résumés is evaluated in _____.
A) terms of the elements of a job description
B) comparison with other applicants' qualifications
C) terms of the incumbent's competencies
D) terms of the industrial benchmarks
E) comparison with other employees in the organization
A) terms of the elements of a job description
B) comparison with other applicants' qualifications
C) terms of the incumbent's competencies
D) terms of the industrial benchmarks
E) comparison with other employees in the organization
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58
For tests that measure abstract qualities such as intelligence or leadership skills,validity would best be established by _____ validation.
A) criterion-related
B) content
C) concurrent
D) construct
E) predictive
A) criterion-related
B) content
C) concurrent
D) construct
E) predictive
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59
Organizations typically use résumés _____.
A) as substitutes for interviews
B) as a basis for deciding which candidates to investigate further
C) to save the cost of administering tests related to the performance on the job
D) because they can control the content of the information, as well as the way it is presented
E) because they are generally an unbiased source of information
A) as substitutes for interviews
B) as a basis for deciding which candidates to investigate further
C) to save the cost of administering tests related to the performance on the job
D) because they can control the content of the information, as well as the way it is presented
E) because they are generally an unbiased source of information
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60
Which of the following is true about content validity?
A) It is usually measured on the basis of expert judgment.
B) It indicates how free a measurement is from random errors.
C) It is most suitable for tests that measure abstract qualities.
D) A test that scores high on content validity tends to score low on generalizability.
E) It is useful for tests that measure intelligence and leadership quality.
A) It is usually measured on the basis of expert judgment.
B) It indicates how free a measurement is from random errors.
C) It is most suitable for tests that measure abstract qualities.
D) A test that scores high on content validity tends to score low on generalizability.
E) It is useful for tests that measure intelligence and leadership quality.
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61
Sean Mathers,a recruiter for a retail firm,is looking for candidates to fill a sales position.Since the job requires the salesperson to interact with customers,Sean is looking for candidates who are expressive and convincing with customers.He also wants the candidates to be friendly and social.Which one of the "Big Five" traits is Sean looking for in particular?
A) Extroversion
B) Adjustment
C) Agreeableness
D) Conscientiousness
E) Inquisitiveness
A) Extroversion
B) Adjustment
C) Agreeableness
D) Conscientiousness
E) Inquisitiveness
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62
Which of the following is true about medical examinations of job candidates?
A) Medical examinations are conducted specifically for candidates of minority groups.
B) Medical examinations are conducted upon the receipt of the candidate's résumé.
C) Medical examinations are conducted specifically for individuals with disabilities.
D) Medical examinations that measure size and strength can never be used for a job.
E) Medical examinations are conducted after the candidate has been given a job offer.
A) Medical examinations are conducted specifically for candidates of minority groups.
B) Medical examinations are conducted upon the receipt of the candidate's résumé.
C) Medical examinations are conducted specifically for individuals with disabilities.
D) Medical examinations that measure size and strength can never be used for a job.
E) Medical examinations are conducted after the candidate has been given a job offer.
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63
In general,the results of reference checks for job applicants will be most valid if the employer _____.
A) contacts many references
B) relies exclusively on the list provided by the applicant
C) avoids direct contact with the reference
D) restricts contact with the references through e-mails
E) receives positive opinions about the employee from the reference
A) contacts many references
B) relies exclusively on the list provided by the applicant
C) avoids direct contact with the reference
D) restricts contact with the references through e-mails
E) receives positive opinions about the employee from the reference
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64
In-basket tests are an example of _____ tests.
A) job performance
B) physical ability
C) honesty
D) personality
E) cognitive ability
A) job performance
B) physical ability
C) honesty
D) personality
E) cognitive ability
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65
Tests designed to measure such mental skills as verbal skills,quantitative skills,and reasoning ability are referred to as _____ tests.
A) job performance
B) honesty
C) personality inventories
D) cognitive ability
E) physical ability
A) job performance
B) honesty
C) personality inventories
D) cognitive ability
E) physical ability
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66
Which of the following tests is a legal means to test the integrity of job applicants and generally involves asking applicants directly about their attitudes toward theft and their own experiences with theft?
A) Polygraph test
B) Paper-and-pencil honesty test
C) Cognitive ability test
D) Personality inventory test
E) In-basket test
A) Polygraph test
B) Paper-and-pencil honesty test
C) Cognitive ability test
D) Personality inventory test
E) In-basket test
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67
Which of the following is true about job performance tests?
A) They provide fair evaluations for applicants.
B) They have the lowest level of validity compared to other tests.
C) These tests are highly generalizable.
D) Customization of these tests for various jobs is inexpensive.
E) They are best suited for identifying the particular skills or traits the individual possesses.
A) They provide fair evaluations for applicants.
B) They have the lowest level of validity compared to other tests.
C) These tests are highly generalizable.
D) Customization of these tests for various jobs is inexpensive.
E) They are best suited for identifying the particular skills or traits the individual possesses.
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68
The "Big Five" traits that include extroversion,adjustment,agreeableness,conscientiousness,and inquisitiveness,are all _____ dimensions.
A) physical ability
B) cognitive ability
C) aptitude
D) personality
E) skills
A) physical ability
B) cognitive ability
C) aptitude
D) personality
E) skills
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69
Which of the following tests assess how well a person can learn or acquire skills and abilities?
A) Personality inventories tests
B) Work sample tests
C) Achievement tests
D) Aptitude tests
E) Physical ability tests
A) Personality inventories tests
B) Work sample tests
C) Achievement tests
D) Aptitude tests
E) Physical ability tests
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70
The controversial practice that treats a range of scores as being similar and thus allows the employer to give preference to underrepresented groups within these "similar" scores is known as _____.
A) banding
B) generalizing
C) affirmative action
D) sensitizing
A) banding
B) generalizing
C) affirmative action
D) sensitizing
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71
The rules for drug testing include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) drug testing should be administered systematically to all applicants for the same job.
B) the drug test reports should not be sent to applicants.
C) drug testing should be conducted for employees working in jobs that involve safety hazards.
D) drug testing should be conducted in an environment that is not intrusive.
E) drug-testing programs should allow for strict confidentiality of results.
A) drug testing should be administered systematically to all applicants for the same job.
B) the drug test reports should not be sent to applicants.
C) drug testing should be conducted for employees working in jobs that involve safety hazards.
D) drug testing should be conducted in an environment that is not intrusive.
E) drug-testing programs should allow for strict confidentiality of results.
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72
What is race norming?
A) Treating a range of scores as being similar
B) Establishing different norms for hiring members of different racial groups
C) A legal quota system that protects interests of people with disabilities
D) Basing selection decisions on a common norm for all races, regardless of impact
E) Use of cognitive tests that discriminate against women and people with disabilities
A) Treating a range of scores as being similar
B) Establishing different norms for hiring members of different racial groups
C) A legal quota system that protects interests of people with disabilities
D) Basing selection decisions on a common norm for all races, regardless of impact
E) Use of cognitive tests that discriminate against women and people with disabilities
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73
What do achievement tests measure?
A) The ability of a person to perform well under pressure
B) A person's existing knowledge and skills
C) The ability of a person to acquire skills
D) The future achievement potential of an individual
E) The attitude of an individual
A) The ability of a person to perform well under pressure
B) A person's existing knowledge and skills
C) The ability of a person to acquire skills
D) The future achievement potential of an individual
E) The attitude of an individual
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74
An assessment center:
A) is a place where job applicants for manufacturing jobs undergo physical ability tests.
B) conducts a single test for all job applicants to test their technical potential.
C) uses multiple selection methods to rate applicants on their management potential.
D) is a selection method generally used for unskilled employees.
E) has the lowest validity because it combines several assessment methods.
A) is a place where job applicants for manufacturing jobs undergo physical ability tests.
B) conducts a single test for all job applicants to test their technical potential.
C) uses multiple selection methods to rate applicants on their management potential.
D) is a selection method generally used for unskilled employees.
E) has the lowest validity because it combines several assessment methods.
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75
Which of the following traits describe conscientiousness?
A) Sociable, gregarious, assertive, talkative
B) Dependable, organized, persevering, achievement-oriented
C) Courteous, trusting, good-natured, tolerant
D) Emotionally stable, nondepressed, secure, content
E) Curious, imaginative, artistically sensitive, broad-minded
A) Sociable, gregarious, assertive, talkative
B) Dependable, organized, persevering, achievement-oriented
C) Courteous, trusting, good-natured, tolerant
D) Emotionally stable, nondepressed, secure, content
E) Curious, imaginative, artistically sensitive, broad-minded
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76
Which of the following is a concern relating to the use of cognitive ability tests?
A) Lack of validity of the tests for complex jobs
B) Lack of reliable and commercially available tests
C) Legal issues related to administering the tests
D) Lack of validity of the tests for those jobs that require adaptability
E) Relatively high cost
A) Lack of validity of the tests for complex jobs
B) Lack of reliable and commercially available tests
C) Legal issues related to administering the tests
D) Lack of validity of the tests for those jobs that require adaptability
E) Relatively high cost
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77
Which of the following is one of the ways by which individuals acting as references for job applicants can minimize the risk of being sued for defamation or misrepresentation?
A) By giving as much information as possible
B) By exclusively giving out positive information about a candidate
C) By only giving information about observable, job-related behaviors
D) By giving only broad opinions
E) By excluding employment dates and the employee's final salary
A) By giving as much information as possible
B) By exclusively giving out positive information about a candidate
C) By only giving information about observable, job-related behaviors
D) By giving only broad opinions
E) By excluding employment dates and the employee's final salary
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78
Which of the following is true about cognitive ability tests?
A) They are especially valid for jobs requiring adaptability.
B) They are relatively expensive compared to the other tests.
C) They measure strength, endurance, psychomotor abilities, and other physical abilities.
D) They are free from legal complications.
E) They are especially valid for simple jobs.
A) They are especially valid for jobs requiring adaptability.
B) They are relatively expensive compared to the other tests.
C) They measure strength, endurance, psychomotor abilities, and other physical abilities.
D) They are free from legal complications.
E) They are especially valid for simple jobs.
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79
_____ tests are sometimes called "intelligence tests."
A) Achievement
B) Psychomotor
C) Adaptability
D) Cognitive ability
E) Endurance
A) Achievement
B) Psychomotor
C) Adaptability
D) Cognitive ability
E) Endurance
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80
A typing test for an administrative assistant's job is an example of a(n)_____ test.
A) job performance
B) cognitive ability
C) physical ability
D) personality inventories
E) emotional intelligence
A) job performance
B) cognitive ability
C) physical ability
D) personality inventories
E) emotional intelligence
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