Deck 22: Reproductive Systems

Question 1

Causes of erectile dysfunction include

A) too much exercise.
B) too much sex.
C) not enough sex.
D) underlying disease, such as diabetes mellitus.

Answer 1

D

Question 2

The structure the sperm enters upon exiting the ductus deferens is the

A) seminal vesicles.
B) epididymis.
C) ejaculatory duct.
D) rete testis.

Answer 2

C

Question 3

The number of sperm cells that form from a primary spermatocyte is

A) 4.
B) 16.
C) 46.
D) 100.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

The bulbourethral glands secrete

A) sperm.
B) a mucus-like fluid.
C) blood.
D) sweat.

Question 5

The epididymis, coiled on the outer surface of the testis, becomes the

A) penile urethra.
B) rete testis.
C) tunica albuginea.
D) ductus deferens.

Question 6

The average length of the epididymis is

A) 1 meter.
B) 3 meters.
C) 6 meters.
D) 9 meters.

Question 7

Meiosis is necessary because

A) otherwise the fertilized ovum will have too much genetic material.
B) otherwise the fertilized ovum will have too little genetic material.
C) otherwise reproduction would have to be asexual.
D) otherwise too many mutations will occur.

Question 8

Semen

A) consists of sperm and secretions.
B) is alkaline.
C) includes prostaglandins and nutrients.
D) is all of the above.

Question 9

Identify the correct sequence for the steps of meiosis I.

A) Interphase - mitosis - meiosis
B) Telophase I - anaphase I - metaphase I - prophase I
C) 46 chromosomes, 23 chromosomes, then 46 chromosomes
D) Prophase I - metaphase I - anaphase I - telophase I

Question 10

The epithelium of the seminiferous tubules consists of

A) adipose cells and chondrocytes.
B) spermatogenic cells and sustentacular cells.
C) spermatogonia and spermatids.
D) interstitial cells and sustentacular cells.

Question 11

The number of possible chromosome combinations in a gamete of a human is

A) 800.
B) 8,000.
C) 80,000.
D) 8 million.

Question 12

During the first meiotic division

A) sperm and egg form.
B) homologous chromosome pairs separate.
C) homologous chromosome pairs join.
D) the cell becomes diploid.

Question 13

The gubernaculum guides the testis through the ________ canal.

A) penile
B) pelvic
C) inguinal
D) seminiferous

Question 14

The head of a sperm is mostly

A) mitochondria.
B) cell membrane.
C) cytoskeleton.
D) nucleus.

Question 15

Sperm cells mature in the

A) ductus deferentia.
B) ejaculatory ducts.
C) epididymides.
D) seminal vesicles.

Question 16

Undifferentiated spermatogenic cells are called

A) spermatogonia.
B) primary spermatocytes.
C) secondary spermatocytes.
D) spermatids.

Question 17

The number of sperm cells in an ejaculate averages

A) about 20 million per milliliter.
B) about 20 million per millimeter.
C) about 20 million per liter.
D) about 120 million per milliliter.

Question 18

Which of the following structures is unpaired?

A) Seminal vesicle
B) Ductus deferens
C) Bulbourethral gland
D) Prostate gland

Question 19

Synapsis occurs during

A) prophase I.
B) metaphase I.
C) anaphase I.
D) telophase I.

Question 20

A circumcision removes

A) the glans penis.
B) the tunica albuginea.
C) the prepuce.
D) the crura.

Question 21

Male reproductive functions are controlled mainly by hormones from the hypothalamus and the

A) posterior pituitary and adrenal glands.
B) anterior pituitary and adrenal glands.
C) posterior pituitary gland and testes.
D) anterior pituitary gland and testes.

Question 22

The inner mucosal layer of the uterine wall is the

A) endometrium.
B) myometrium.
C) perimetrium.
D) epimetrium.

Question 23

Male secondary sex characterisitics include

A) thickening of the bones.
B) increased muscular growth.
C) increased growth of body hair.
D) all of the above.

Question 24

The first step in oogenesis is:

A) a secondary oocyte divides to form a polar body and an egg cell.
B) a primary oocyte divides to form a secondary oocyte and a first polar body.
C) a follicle becomes a corpus luteum.
D) a corpus luteum becomes a corpus albicans.

Question 25

Which of the following terms is/are correctly defined?

A) Ovulation - rupture of an ovarian follicle and release of a secondary oocyte and first polar body
B) Vestibule - space enclosed by the labia minora
C) Orgasm - pleasurable sense of physiological and psychological release
D) All of the above

Question 26

Which of the following correctly describes an erection?

A) Smooth muscles of vascular spaces in the penis contract.
B) Parasympathetic impulses constrict arteries leading to the penis.
C) Parasympathetic neurons release nitric oxide causing dilation of small arteries in the penis.
D) The spongy tissue in the penis fills with air.

Question 27

The last fluid expelled from the urethra during ejaculation comes from the

A) testes.
B) bulbourethral gland.
C) prostate gland.
D) seminal vesicles.

Question 28

The dimensions of a uterine tube are

A) 5 centimeters in diameter and about 20 centimeters long.
B) 2 centimeters in diameter and about 30 centimeters long.
C) 10 centimeters in diameter and about 40 centimeters long.
D) 0.7 centimeters in diameter and about 10 centimeters long.

Question 29

The structure of a testis is composed of

A) about 250 lobules, each of which contains 1 to 4 seminiferous tubules.
B) 1 to 4 lobules, each of which contains about 250 seminiferous tubules.
C) semen in various stages of development held in seminiferous tubules.
D) a single very long seminiferous tubule that winds through the structure.

Question 30

The hormone responsible for the development and maintenance of male secondary sex characteristics is

A) LH.
B) FSH.
C) testosterone.
D) gonadotropin-releasing hormone.

Question 31

The interstitial cells of the testes produce

A) seminal fluid.
B) spermatogenic cells.
C) sperm cells.
D) androgens.

Question 32

The female structure that corresponds to the male penis is the

A) vagina.
B) clitoris.
C) vestibule.
D) labia minora.

Question 33

The zona pellucida consists of

A) glycoprotein.
B) adipose tissue.
C) epithelium.
D) nucleic acid.

Question 34

The egg, or ovum, is more correctly called

A) a primary oocyte.
B) a secondary oocyte.
C) an oogonium.
D) a zygote.

Question 35

The epididymis is a _____ and it _____.

A) compartment inside a testis; secretes testosterone and forms sperm
B) stage of spermatogenesis; forms two sperm cells and semen
C) tightly coiled tube on the outside of the testis; is the location for sperm maturation
D) compartment that contains seminiferous tubules; ejaculates sperm

Question 36

The tubular part of the uterus that extends downward into the upper vagina is the

A) fundus.
B) cervix.
C) perimetrium.
D) endometrium.

Question 37

The level of testosterone in the blood is increased by

A) a high level of testosterone stimulating the hypothalamus.
B) the hypothalamus stimulating the testes to release LH.
C) LH causing the interstitial cells to release testosterone.
D) a high level of testosterone stimulating the testes to release more LH.

Question 38

A Pap smear is used to detect abnormal cells in the

A) urethra.
B) ovary.
C) cervix.
D) vagina.

Question 39

In females, which structure is immediately anterior to the vagina?

A) Uterus
B) Urethra
C) Rectum
D) Pubis symphysis

Question 40

Fertilization normally occurs in the

A) peritoneal cavity.
B) uterine tube.
C) uterus.
D) vagina.

Question 41

A mammary gland contains ____ lobes.

A) paired
B) three
C) ten
D) fifteen to twenty

Question 42

Judy runs 50 miles a week. She and her husband have been trying to conceive for three years, with no luck. Her disturbed reproductive cycles and infertility are due to

A) increased secretion of adrenal androgens.
B) decreased secretion of adrenal androgens.
C) increased synthesis of estrogens.
D) decreased synthesis of estrogens.

Question 43

The prostate gland is the size and shape of a

A) horseshoe.
B) pea.
C) walnut or chestnut.
D) apple.

Question 44

Signs of menopause include

A) increased concentrations of estrogens.
B) inexplicable euphoria, extra energy, weight loss.
C) shrinking of the vagina, uterus, and breasts.
D) increased bone matrix.

Question 45

The glands in a lobe of a breast

A) drain into alveolar ducts, which drain into a lactiferous duct that leads to the nipple.
B) lead directly to a nipple.
C) drain into a lactiferous duct, which drains into an alveolar duct that leads to the nipple.
D) are separated by muscle tissue.

Question 46

Factors that may suggest prostate cancer include

A) cellular changes observed in a biopsy sample.
B) elevated PSA level in the blood.
C) enlargement of the prostate gland.
D) all of the above.

Question 47

Which of the following provides mechanical contraception?

A) The rhythm method
B) The minipill
C) Combined hormone contraceptives
D) A diaphragm

Question 48

Lulu is 53 and has not had her menstrual period in a year. Several times a day, she feels a tingling in her upper chest, and then heat washes over her, in an upwards direction. It is intensely uncomfortable for about 5 minutes, during which she is nearly overwhelmed with an urge to fling off her clothing. The cause of Lulu's hot flashes is

A) an increase in gonadotropin concentration and a decrease in estrogen concentration.
B) an increase in gonadotropin concentration and an increase in estrogen concentration.
C) a decrease in gonadotropin concentration and an increase in estrogen concentration.
D) a decrease in gonadotropin concentration and a decrease in estrogen concentration.

Question 49

A cause of female infertility is failure of ovulation due to hyposecretion of hormones from the

A) anterior pituitary gland.
B) posterior pituitary gland.
C) adrenal gland.
D) ovary.

Question 50

In the reproductive cycle, estrogen _____, whereas progesterone _____.

A) stimulates erection of the clitoris; stimulates the uterine lining to become glandular
B) ejects milk from the mammary glands; stimulates milk secretion
C) stimulates uterine wall development; stimulates the uterine lining to become more glandular
D) inhibits the release of FSH; stimulates the release of FSH

Question 51

The hormone mainly responsible for the development and maintenance of female secondary sexual characteristics is

A) estrogen.
B) progesterone.
C) androgen.
D) luteinizing hormone.

Question 52

A woman going through menopause may take ______ to minimize the symptoms.

A) gonadotropin releasing hormone
B) hormone replacement therapy
C) follicle-stimulating hormone
D) progesterone-releasing hormone

Question 53

Which of the following is (are) forms of contraception?

A) Rhythm method
B) Chemical barriers
C) Intrauterine device
D) All of the above

Question 54

Oral contraceptives may cause

A) increased skin pigmentation.
B) breast tenderness.
C) fluid retention.
D) all of the above.

Question 55

Compared to males who train for endurance events, females who train for such events typically

A) maintain a lower percentage of body fat.
B) maintain a higher percentage of body fat.
C) develop a higher percentage of muscle tissue because of testosterone.
D) develop a higher percentage of muscle tissue because of estrogen.

Question 56

Menopause is due to aging of the

A) ovaries.
B) vagina.
C) cervix.
D) uterine tube.

Question 57

Undescended testes cause infertility because

A) sperm development is impeded by the higher internal body temperature.
B) there is too little testosterone.
C) they undergo apoptosis, and can no longer produce sperm.
D) they become entangled in the seminiferous tubules, which then degenerate.

Question 58

Possible problems from donating eggs include

A) psychological difficulties from wondering about the fate of the eggs.
B) infertility.
C) ovary scarring.
D) all of the above.

Question 59

The most commonly used oral contraceptives contain

A) synthetic estrogen and progesterone.
B) synthetic androgen.
C) gonadotropins.
D) FSH and LH.

Question 60

About the time of ovulation, the anterior pituitary gland releases a surge of

A) estrogen.
B) progesterone.
C) LH.
D) androgen.

Question 61

Primary oocyte production begins before birth.

Question 62

In endometriosis,

A) tissue resembling the inner uterine lining grows in the thoracic cavity.
B) tissue resembling the inner uterine lining grows in the abdominal cavity.
C) the inner uterine lining tissue no longer grows during the woman's reproductive cycles.
D) a new mother becomes extremely depressed.

Question 63

The testes originate from tissues posterior to the parietal pleura.

Question 64

A positive feedback system regulates testosterone production.

Question 65

"You can't possibly have breast cancer," said Jim to his roommate Eliot, who was distraught after a visit to a doctor. "You're a man!" "No, Jim. A certain percentage of breast cancer cases are in men." That percentage is

A) 0.5
B) 0.75
C) 1.0
D) 10

Question 66

As many as twenty primary ovarian follicles may reach maturity simultaneously.

Question 67

Ciliary action aids movement of an egg through a uterine tube.

Question 68

Chromosomes align down the center of a cell undergoing meiosis in metaphase.

Question 69

The primary organs of the female reproductive system are the uterus and vagina.

Question 70

The secretions of the prostate gland neutralize the acid in semen.

Question 71

Capacitation makes sperm tails whip more quickly.

Question 72

Each epididymis emerges from the bottom of a testis.

Question 73

The cells that result from meiosis are diploid.

Question 74

The spermatogenic cells that line the seminiferous tubules produce sperm.

Question 75

Gonadotropins include FSH and LH.

Question 76

The ductus deferentia are muscular tubes, each about 25 centimeters long.

Question 77

A hysterosalpinogram measures or shows

A) the intensity of a woman's orgasm.
B) the number of uterine tubes.
C) whether or not a uterine tube is open.
D) whether there is anything growing in the uterus.

Question 78

Measles can inflame the testes, impairing fertility by destroying cells in the seminiferous tubules.

Question 79

The structures of the female reproductive system that surround the openings to the urethra and vagina comprise the mons pubis.

Question 80

Tamoxifen and raloxifene act by

A) blocking estrogen receptors.
B) activating progesterone receptors.
C) breaking up cancer cell DNA.
D) depriving cancer cell of growth factors.