Deck 16: Lymphatic System and Immunity

Question 1

Henry has a cut on his thigh that becomes infected. The lymph nodes in his __________ enlarge.

A) cervical region
B) thoracic region
C) inguinal region
D) supratrochlear region

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Lymph nodes are grouped throughout the body except in the

A) lungs.
B) central nervous system.
C) mesentery.
D) inguinal connective tissue.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

The supratrochlear lymph nodes are located near the

A) hand.
B) wrist.
C) elbow.
D) axillary region.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Stephanie has her cancerous right breast removed, and the surgeon also removes lymph nodes in the axillary region, to prevent spread of the cancer. As a result, Stephanie's right arm

A) loses its blood supply.
B) receives too much blood and swells.
C) becomes edematous.
D) loses tissue fluid.

Question 5

A lymph node consists of

A) compartments that contain masses of lymphocytes and macrophages.
B) afferent vessels circulating lymph into the node on its convex surface.
C) lymph nodules.
D) all of the above.

Question 6

Tissue fluid is ______ and lymph is ______.

A) forced out of lymph vessels; absorbed into lymph vessels
B) forced out of blood plasma; absorbed into blood capillaries
C) rich in proteins; rich in proteins and foreign particles
D) forced out of blood plasma and generally lacking in proteins; absorbed into lymph capillaries

Question 7

The primary functions of lymph include

A) returning proteins to the tissue fluid.
B) transporting foreign particles to the kidneys.
C) returning proteins to the bloodstream and transporting foreign particles to the lymph nodes.
D) carrying oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Question 8

The spleen

A) is the largest lymphatic organ.
B) contains nodules similar to lymphatic nodules.
C) contains many phagocytes.
D) all of the above.

Question 9

Lymph differs from plasma in that

A) lymph has more protein than plasma.
B) plasma has more protein than lymph.
C) lymph is colorless and plasma is red.
D) lymph is thin and plasma is viscous.

Question 10

Foreign particles that are injected into the skin enter the lymphatic system

A) rapidly.
B) slowly.
C) not at all, because lymphatic valves prevent this.
D) not at all, because the skin lacks lymphatic capillaries.

Question 11

Fluid is kept from accumulating in tissue spaces by

A) sweating.
B) breathing.
C) the urinary system.
D) the lymphatic system.

Question 12

Cells in a lymph node that engulf and destroy damaged cells, foreign substances, and cellular debris are

A) macrophages.
B) lymphocytes.
C) mast cells.
D) cytokines.

Question 13

The structure of a lymphatic vessel is most similar to that of a(n)

A) artery.
B) arteriole.
C) vein.
D) capillary.

Question 14

The lymph nodes of the axillary region receive lymph mainly from the

A) scalp and face.
B) upper limb and mammary gland.
C) thoracic viscera.
D) abdominal viscera.

Question 15

After lymph leaves the collecting ducts, it enters _____ and becomes part of the ______.

A) arteries; serum
B) capillaries; blood supply
C) veins; plasma
D) lymph nodes; lymphatic trunks

Question 16

The region of a lymph node through which blood vessels and nerves pass is called the

A) sinus.
B) capsule.
C) nodule.
D) hilum.

Question 17

Disease-causing agents are called

A) bugs.
B) germs.
C) pathogens.
D) antibodies.

Question 18

The formation of lymph increases as a result of

A) increasing osmotic pressure in blood capillaries.
B) increasing hydrostatic pressure in tissue fluid.
C) decreasing volume of tissue fluid.
D) decreasing protein concentration in tissue fluid.

Question 19

The two collecting ducts that drain the lymphatic trunks are the

A) thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct.
B) lumbar duct and left lymphatic duct.
C) intestinal duct and left intercostal duct.
D) bronchomediastinal duct and subclavian duct.

Question 20

The functions of the lymphatic system do not include

A) returning interstitial fluid to the bloodstream.
B) protecting the body against infection.
C) transporting hormones to intestinal smooth muscle.
D) transporting the products of lipid digestion from the intestine to the liver.

Question 21

Interferon is a group of hormonelike peptides that cells produce in response to

A) chemical irritants.
B) viruses.
C) bacteria.
D) fungi.

Question 22

A virus differs from other pathogens in that it is

A) larger.
B) more dangerous.
C) not capable of reproduction outside a living cell.
D) multicellular.

Question 23

A transplant recipient may be able to eventually discontinue immunosuppressant drugs if

A) the recipient receives bone marrow stem cells from the donor.
B) the donor and recipient are both under age 30.
C) the transplanted organ is not vital.
D) The recipient receives a well-matched transplant from the donor.

Question 24

Which of the following is not a mechanical barrier against microorganisms?

A) Saliva
B) Urine
C) Tears
D) Diarrhea

Question 25

The spleen

A) consists of two lobes in the mediastinum.
B) resembles a large lymph node divided into lobules.
C) produces T lymphocytes.
D) produces B lymphocytes.

Question 26

Which of the following is part of the adaptive immune response?

A) Phagocytosis
B) Inflammation
C) Production of antibodies
D) Synthesis of defensins

Question 27

_________ initiate(s) a cascade effect in response to foreign proteins in the body.

A) Antibodies
B) Interferon
C) The complement system
D) Natural killer cells

Question 28

Low-grade fever is an effective defense for short periods of time because it

A) increases iron in the blood.
B) includes pyrogens that destroy the pathogens.
C) increases temperature, which slows the growth of bacteria.
D) slows the attack of phagocytes.

Question 29

The tissues of the spleen are called

A) red and white pulp.
B) black and blue pulp.
C) tonsils and Peyer's patches.
D) cellular and fibrous.

Question 30

The cells that are primarily responsible for immunity are

A) lymphocytes and macrophages.
B) neutrophils and lymphocytes.
C) monocytes and macrophages.
D) lymphocytes and monocytes.

Question 31

Inflammation is a response to

A) ultraviolet light.
B) infection.
C) chemical exposure.
D) all of the above.

Question 32

A transplant recipient's body rejects a transplanted organ because her ______ does not match that of the donor closely enough.

A) major histocompatibility complex
B) mononuclear phagocytic system
C) cytokine profile
D) antibody response

Question 33

Drugs used to reduce the tissue rejection reaction following the transplantation of tissue from one person to another

A) stimulate the formation of antibodies by the recipient's cells.
B) reduce the recipient's immune response.
C) reduce the differences between donor proteins and recipient proteins.
D) reduce the chance of infection in the recipient.

Question 34

Innate defenses are

A) fast and nonspecific.
B) slow and nonspecific.
C) fast and specific.
D) slow and specific.

Question 35

Interleukin-1 secretion causes

A) an allergic response.
B) an antibody response.
C) a fever.
D) cytokine secretion.

Question 36

An immune response that is slower but more specific for the pathogen is the

A) innate defense.
B) adaptive defense.
C) nonspecific defense.
D) inborn defense.

Question 37

T lymphocytes mature in the thymus in response to

A) cytokines.
B) antibodies.
C) interferon.
D) thymosins.

Question 38

The most active phagocytic cells in circulating blood are

A) neutrophils and monocytes.
B) neutrophils and macrophages.
C) monocytes and macrophages.
D) lymphocytes and monocytes.

Question 39

The mononuclear phagocytic system includes

A) T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes.
B) monocytes, macrophages, and neutrophils.
C) basophils, neutrophils, and eosinophils.
D) mast cells and megakaryocytes.

Question 40

Marsha gets a splinter in her finger. What is her body's response to any microbe that might try to enter her body as a result of the splinter breaking the skin?

A) Innate defense
B) Adaptive defense
C) Specific defense
D) Cytotoxic T cell response

Question 41

Cytotoxic T cells destroy their target cells by releasing perforin, which cuts holes in

A) cell membranes.
B) lysosomes.
C) ribosomes.
D) DNA molecules.

Question 42

The type of resistance that is acquired as a result of developing a disease is

A) naturally acquired active immunity.
B) artificially acquired active immunity.
C) artificially acquired passive immunity.
D) naturally acquired passive immunity.

Question 43

A vaccine produces its effects by

A) directly attacking the antigens and neutralizing them.
B) chemotaxis, the attraction of antigens to areas where the vaccine can destroy them.
C) stimulating a primary immune response.
D) activating autoantibodies.

Question 44

In an autoimmune disease, the immune response is directed toward

A) foreign cells.
B) cells of the body ("self").
C) all antigens.
D) all antibodies.

Question 45

The anti-Rh factor is an example of an

A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgE.
D) IgA.

Question 46

In the cellular immune response,

A) B cells produce antibodies directly against antigens.
B) T cells produce antibodies directly against antigens.
C) T cells attach directly to antigens and destroy them.
D) T cells attack healthy body cells.

Question 47

B cells divide and differentiate into _________, which produce and secrete antibodies.

A) T cells
B) antibodies
C) megakaryocytes
D) plasma cells

Question 48

T lymphocytes are responsible for

A) programming macrophages.
B) producing antibodies.
C) cell-mediated immunity.
D) humoral immunity.

Question 49

Cytotoxic T cells destroy

A) cytotoxic cells.
B) T cells.
C) all antigen-bearing cells.
D) cancer cells and virus-containing cells.

Question 50

Complement proteins, which are activated when IgG or IgM antibodies bind antigen,

A) stimulate chemotaxis, in which neutrophils and macrophages are repelled from the affected area.
B) cause opsonization, which coats the antibody-antigen complexes in a way that attracts phagocytes.
C) cause lysis of the T cells.
D) stimulate cytokine release.

Question 51

The antibodies produced in allergic reactions

A) are called allergens.
B) are secreted by mast cells.
C) belong to the immunoglobulin E group.
D) belong to the immunoglobulin G group.

Question 52

Following a primary immune response, the cells that give rise to memory cells are

A) B cells only.
B) T cells only.
C) both B cells and T cells.
D) neither B cells nor T cells.

Question 53

Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?

A) Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
B) Multiple sclerosis
C) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
D) All of the above

Question 54

The most abundant type of immunoglobulin is

A) IgA.
B) IgD.
C) IgE.
D) IgG.

Question 55

A newborn is protected against certain digestive and respiratory infections thanks to IgA from the mother's

A) milk.
B) blood.
C) intestine.
D) placenta.

Question 56

Plasma cells

A) increase the volume of the blood plasma.
B) produce antibody molecules.
C) directly attack antigens.
D) produce interferon.

Question 57

Injections of gamma globulin are sometimes given to provide

A) naturally acquired active immunity.
B) artificially acquired active immunity.
C) artificially acquired passive immunity.
D) naturally acquired passive immunity.

Question 58

An antigen is ______, whereas an antibody is ______.

A) a foreign substance such as a protein or a polysaccharide to which lymphocytes respond; a globular protein that reacts with an antigen to eliminate the antigen
B) an immunoglobulin that is produced by lymph nodes in response to bacteria; a foreign protein that enters the body and causes an immune reaction
C) a hapten molecule that is complex in shape; an enzyme produced by the thymus gland that neutralizes antigens
D) only on a pathogen; only in a human body

Question 59

A primary immune response ______, and a secondary immune response ______.

A) is very important; is less important to the body's ability to protect itself
B) produces antibodies within five to ten days of exposure to antigens; produces antibodies within a day or two of a subsequent exposure to the same antigen
C) is very rapid in producing antibodies after exposure to antigens; is very slow in producing antibodies after exposure to antigens
D) occurs only in children; occurs only in adults

Question 60

Which of the following are cytokines?

A) Antibodies and antigens
B) Colony-stimulating factors, interferons, interleukins, tumor necrosis factor
C) Autoantibodies and immunosuppressants
D) Histamine and leukotrienes

Question 61

Two mechanical barriers to infection are interferon and inflammation.

Question 62

The thymus is in the mediastinum behind the sternum.

Question 63

Newborns can acquire __________ immunity through breast milk.

A) specific
B) passive
C) active
D) innate

Question 64

Muscle contraction moves lymph through lymphatic vessels.

Question 65

Aging of the lymphatic system begins

A) before birth.
B) at birth.
C) shortly after birth.
D) after age 50.

Question 66

In HIV infection, reverse transcriptase

A) makes DNA from viral RNA.
B) makes RNA from viral DNA.
C) makes protein from viral RNA.
D) makes protein from viral DNA.

Question 67

Morris has lung cancer and is given the drug Avastin. His doctor says that the drug is a monoclonal antibody. This means that the drug consists of

A) a cocktail of many types of antibodies.
B) a cocktail of many types of antigens.
C) a single type of antibody.
D) a single type of antigen.

Question 68

The order in which HIV breaches barriers and affects immunity is

A) inhalation, entering the circulation, entering helper T cells.
B) ingestion, entering the circulation, entering helper T cells.
C) crossing the mucosal barrier, then entering macrophages, then B cells, then natural killer cells.
D) crossing the mucosal barrier, then entering macrophages, then entering helper T cells, then cytotoxic T cells.

Question 69

The thymus enlarges after puberty.

Question 70

Normal immune responses require T and B lymphocytes.

Question 71

Older red blood cells may be destroyed in the spleen.

Question 72

Immunoglobulin A is abundant in endocrine gland secretions.

Question 73

A vaccine against HIV

A) is available for those who can afford it.
B) may be impossible due to the variability and diversity of HIV.
C) consists of cocktails of drugs taken daily.
D) prevents opportunistic infections.

Question 74

During the primary immune response, B lymphocytes give rise to plasma cells.

Question 75

Innate defenses include mechanical and chemical barriers, whereas adaptive defenses counter specific disease-causing agents.

Question 76

As a result of the allergen-antibody reaction, mast cells release histamine.

Question 77

A vaccine can halt an infection in a population in which most everyone is vaccinated, due to

A) herd immunity.
B) people keeping away from each other.
C) an epidemic of autoimmunity.
D) bovine immunity.

Question 78

Lymphatic capillaries are thin-walled, closed-ended tubes.

Question 79

Factors that contribute to the prevalence of peanut allergy in the U.S. include the fact that

A) peanut antigens are in infant formula.
B) peanuts lack allergens.
C) peanut allergens are stopped and destroyed in the stomach, causing cramps.
D) dry roasting activates the responsible allergens.

Question 80

Heart valve cells can be damaged through

A) specific immunity.
B) innate immunity.
C) autoimmunity.
D) passive immunity.