Deck 26: Microbial Diseases

Question 1

Which of the following is caused by a fungus?

A) folliculitis
B) trichomoniasis
C) blastomycosis
D) listeriosis
E) Lyme disease

Answer 1

C

Question 2

German measles and __________ are different names describing the same disease.

A) shingles
B) rubeola
C) rubella
D) varicella
E) small pox

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of influenza?

A) fever
B) runny nose
C) muscle aches
D) sore throat
E) headache

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Bacille Calmette-Guerin (BCG) is a weakened strain used to vaccinate against:

A) diphtheria
B) whooping cough
C) tuberculosis
D) pneumonia
E) influenza

Question 5

What will be the result of a tuberculin skin test for an AIDS patient with an active tuberculosis disease?

A) negative result
B) postive result
C) profuse bleeding
D) ulcerating lesion
E) two of the above

Question 6

The major challenge with treating flesh-eating disease caused by Streptococcus pyogenes is that:

A) the bacterium is a multidrug resistant pathogen
B) no antibiotic is useful because it's a mixed infection
C) toxin encoding phage also encode antibiotic degrading enzymes
D) the causative agent is a MRSA
E) rapid necrosis of infected tissue limits access

Question 7

Bacterial infections of the lung that arise secondary to viral disease are attributable in part to:

A) the high virulence of the bacterial pathogen
B) viruses provide attachment receptors for the bacteria
C) the host's phagocytes have mutated
D) the impaired mucociliary escalator due to dehydration of host
E) the low virulence of the viral disease

Question 8

All of the following are true for a positive tuberculin skin test EXCEPT:

A) Latent tuberculosis is indicated.
B) It signifies active disease in all patients.
C) A delayed type hypersensitivity reaction occurred.
D) The purified protein derivative is the antigen.
E) Redness and some swelling was observed.

Question 9

Most diarrheal diseases are of what origin?

A) viral
B) bacterial
C) fungal
D) archaeal
E) any of the above

Question 10

A __________ disease is an infection that normally affects animals but that can be transmitted to humans.

A) zoonotic
B) herd
C) fulminating
D) recurrent or cyclic
E) community acquired

Question 11

Which of the following is caused by a viral pathogen?

A) diphtheria
B) whooping cough
C) tuberculosis
D) Legionnaires' disease
E) severe acute respiratory syndrome

Question 12

Which of the following does NOT pertain to influenza disease?

A) It is caused by the RNA enveloped influenza virus.
B) It is not typically treated with antibiotics.
C) It is common around the world.
D) Runny nose is a characteristic symptom.
E) Direct transmission and fomites play significant roles in its spread.

Question 13

Which of the following pathogens does NOT cause diarrhea?

A) Escherichia coli Ol57:H7
B) Vibrio cholerae
C) Campylobacter jejuni
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
E) Listeria monocytogenes

Question 14

MRSA infections are typically treated with __________.

A) penicillin G
B) tetracycline
C) vancomycin
D) ciproflaxacin
E) amoxicillins

Question 15

Rubeola measles is caused by __________ virus.

A) hepatitis B
B) varicella
C) paramyxovirus
D) rhinovirus
E) adenovirus

Question 16

What disease is caused without an infection?

A) giardiasis
B) tetanus
C) staphylococcal food poisoning
D) candidiasis
E) psittacosis

Question 17

Toxic shock syndrome is associated with which of the following:

A) E. coli O157:H7
B) enterotoxin of Staphylococcus aureus
C) superantigens of some Gram-positive cocci
D) meningococcal capsular antigen
E) pertactin of whooping cough

Question 18

Streptococcus pneumoniae causes all of the following EXCEPT:

A) meningitis
B) lobar pneumonia
C) bronchopneumonia
D) necrotizing fasciitis
E) bacteremia

Question 19

Many infectious diseases display similar __________, making diagnosis difficult.

A) syndromes
B) symptoms
C) vectors
D) disease mechanisms
E) modes of transmission

Question 20

A 15-year-old female was said to have Koplik's spots after a doctor's examination. This suggests that she has __________.

A) measles caused by the rubeola virus
B) no antibiotic is useful because it's a mixed infection
C) toxin encoding phage also encode antibiotic degrading enzymes
D) the causative agent is a MRSA
E) rapid necrosis of infected tissue limits access

Question 21

One major source of Clostridium botulinum infection in infants is __________.

A) any honey-based meal
B) endospore-contaminated honey
C) contaminated drinking water
D) fomites in the house
E) breast milk

Question 22

Which of the following is the causative agent of pseudomembranous enterocolitis?

A) Vibrio cholerae
B) Vibrio parahemolyticus
C) Clostridium perfringens
D) Clostridium difficile
E) Helicobacter pylori

Question 23

A chancre is the initial symptom of what disease?

A) gonorrhea
B) chlamydia
C) syphilis
D) chancroid
E) genital warts

Question 24

Which of the following STDs can lead to sterility?

A) gonorrhea
B) syphilis
C) trichomoniasis
D) chancroid
E) genital herpes

Question 25

Eastern equine encephalitis is transmitted to humans via __________.

A) aerosol transmission
B) tick bite
C) trauma and wound infection
D) a mosquito bite
E) pet bite

Question 26

Regarding the neurotoxigenic disease caused by Clostridium tetani, which of the following is NOT correct?

A) The tetanospasmin toxoid is an effective vaccine.
B) It is a spasmic paralytic disease.
C) The causative agent produces endospores.
D) Herd immunity can decrease the risk of acquiring it.
E) It inhibits neurotransmitters.

Question 27

Which of the following is employed by Chlamydia for spread within and between hosts?

A) elementary body
B) rapidly replicating reticulate body
C) microspores
D) conidia
E) actin polymers

Question 28

__________ is NOT a gastrointestinal disease even though the portal of entry for the etiologic agent is the gastrointestinal tract.

A) Dysentary
B) Enteric fever
C) Pseudomembraneous colitis
D) Diarrhea
E) Enteritis

Question 29

Regarding urinary tract infections (UTIs), what is the implication of the ability of bacteria to actually hide inside bladder cells, shielded by uroplakin?

A) UTI can never be cured.
B) Reservoir for reinfection is created.
C) The kidney will invariably be infected.
D) Intracellular pathogens are the etiologies for UTI.
E) The ureter is the usual route for bladder infection.

Question 30

Why is antibiotic treatment NOT typically prescribed for staphylococcal food poisoning?

A) The bacterium is a multidrug-resistant pathogen.
B) No antibiotic is useful because it's a mixed infection.
C) No vegetative cells are involved in the disease.
D) The causative agent is a MRSA.
E) None of the above.

Question 31

By the age of 3, all children are believed to have had a rotavirus infection, which is spread by what route?

A) food-borne
B) fecal-oral
C) air-borne
D) blood-borne
E) water-borne

Question 32

What protective substance strengthens the epithelial cells and shields them from toxins that may build up in the urine?

A) keratin
B) uroplakin
C) peptidoglycan
D) mucous
E) polysaccharide

Question 33

Thrombocytopenia is a decreased number of:

A) red blood cells
B) NK cells
C) cytotoxic T cells
D) phagocytes
E) platelets

Question 34

A nationwide recall of spinach in 2006 was due to contamination by cattle water containing:

A) Neisseria meningitidis
B) E. coli O157:H7
C) Vibrio cholerae
D) Shigella species
E) hepatitis A virus

Question 35

Which of the following is correctly paired?

A) Koplik's spot-HIV-induced cancer
B) herd immunity-immunity of animals
C) acetylcholine blocker- botulism toxin
D) Lyme disease-enteric disorder
E) enteric fever-elevated white blood cell counts

Question 36

During secondary syphilis, the treponemes spread to the nervous and cardiovascular system; consequently:

A) secondary syphilis is a latent form of the disease
B) it cannot be cured
C) the host remains infectious with characteristic rash
D) serology is negative
E) there is no transplacental transmission

Question 37

Strains of E. coli that cause about 75% of all urinary tract infections use __________ to latch onto proteins coating the urinary tract epithelium.

A) sex pili
B) P pili
C) fimbrae
D) adhesins
E) glycocalyx

Question 38

Helicobacter pylori is thought to cause halitosis through:

A) toxin production
B) inducing inflammation
C) neutralizing acid pH, which allows anaerobes to grow
D) putrefying food consumed by host
E) adhering to the oropharygeal epithelium

Question 39

Giardia lamblia enters a human or other host in what form?

A) spore
B) endospore
C) cyst
D) worm
E) trophozoite

Question 40

Which of the following pathogens is a cellular agent?

A) chlamydia
B) rickettsia
C) prion
D) A and B
E) none of the above

Question 41

Which of the following is NOT correct about malaria?

A) It infects over 300 million people worldwide each year.
B) It is highly communicable from host to host.
C) Plasmodium species are the causative agents.
D) Free-iron toxicity is the mode of action of chloroquine.
E) Drug resistance is a challenge.

Question 42

Why is anthrax primarily, though uncommonly, found in people who work with sheep and related items?

Question 43

Which of the following is a genetic neurodegenerative disease?

A) kuru
B) fatal familial insomnia
C) mad cow disease
D) wasting disease
E) all of the above

Question 44

What is a multivalent vaccine? Give examples.

Question 45

Which of the following is NOT matched correctly?

A) erythema migrans-Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Borrelia burgdorferi-Lyme disease
C) salvanic cycle-wild rodent and flea cycling of plague
D) pelvic inflammatory disease-antigent phase variation
E) multidrug resistance-emerging Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 46

A commonly implicated causative agent of subacute endocarditis (SBE) is:

A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) Staphylococcus epidermidis
C) viridans streptococci
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
E) Borrelia burgdorferi

Question 47

What evidence suggests that Columbus did NOT bring syphilis back from the New World but instead brought it from Europe to the New World?

Question 48

Which of the following diseases is likely to increase in incidence if global warming continues unabated?

A) Streptococcal pharyngitis
B) Lyme disease
C) syphilis
D) gonorrhea
E) hepatitis B

Question 49

Why is antibiotic treatment NOT recommended for E. coli O157:H7 (EHEC)?

Question 50

Does chocolate agar contain chocolate? Describe the medium and what it is used for.

Question 51

Giardia causes more diarrhea than any other protozoan globally. Describe the reasons for its success in causing disease.

Question 52

A hunter who presents with flu-like symptoms and lives in Boston has a 'bull eye" rash on his leg. The appropriate diagnosis is __________.

A) Lyme disease
B) tuleremia
C) meningitis
D) malaria
E) measles

Question 53

How would a chest X-ray and blood counts look different for a fungal versus bacterial lung infection?

Question 54

What do hepatitis A and B viruses have in common?

A) They are both RNA viruses.
B) They infect the liver.
C) They can be transmitted by blood products.
D) There are vaccines for both viral diseases.
E) Two of the above are correct.

Question 55

Compare and contrast the symptoms characteristic of the common cold and the flu.

Question 56

__________ diseases are often called spongiform encephalopathies.

A) Meningitis
B) Cytotoxin
C) Neurotoxin
D) Prion
E) Virus

Question 57

Which vaccine is recommended for administration when one becomes an adolescent?

A) hepatitis B
B) varicella
C) pneumococcal
D) meningococcal
E) tuberculosis

Question 58

Herd immunity requires that at least what percentage of the population be vaccinated?

A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 80%
D) 90%
E) 99%

Question 59

Why is Yersinia pestis, the causative agent of bubonic plague, considered a potential biowarfare agent?

A) The bacteria is readily available in Europe.
B) There is no effective antibiotic against it.
C) It is readily introduced into the human population by mosquitoes.
D) Pneumonic plague is highly communicable with a high mortality rate.
E) The bacterium forms long-lasting endospores.

Question 60

The portal of entry for Shigella dysentery and Salmonella Typhi are the same but the outcome of the infection (encounter) are very different. Explain.

Question 61

What makes uropathogenic E. coli different from the other E. coli?

Question 62

Explain the mechanism by which meningococci get to the brain and spinal fluid to cause disease.

Question 63

Why is reinfection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae possible?

Question 64

Define herd immunity and explain why it is only effective against infections spread by person-to-person contact.

Question 65

Name and describe the role of the three domains found in tetanus and botulism toxins.

Question 66

Why do you think most urinary tract infections occur in women?

Question 67

Why does one person have repeated infections with N. gonorrhoea?

Question 68

Describe the replication cycle of Chlamydia.

Question 69

Describe epigenetic silencing and the role it plays in malaria.

Question 70

What is the reservoir for Trichomonas vaginalis? Explain how it causes disease in the acidic vagina of females.

Question 71

Explain how Clostridium botulinum, an obligate anaerobe, secretes its potent toxins in food.