Deck 25: Genitourinary Infections

Question 1

Urinary tract infections

A) are relatively rare.
B) are the most common nosocomial infections.
C) include puerperal fever.
D) are not considered STDs.
E) are the most common nosocomial infections AND include puerperal fever.

Answer 1

E

Question 2

Gonococci are parasites of

A) cows.
B) iguanas.
C) sheep.
D) humans.
E) cows AND sheep.

Answer 2

D

Question 3

A frequent complication of untreated gonorrhea in women is

A) pelvic inflammatory disease.
B) syphilis.
C) dysuria.
D) vaginal discharge.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Pregnant women with bacterial vaginosis are at risk of

A) placental insufficiency.
B) being unable to nurse.
C) being unable to deliver vaginally.
D) having a premature baby.

Question 5

The genital tract infection characterized by an unpleasant odor and an increase in clue cells is

A) trichomoniasis.
B) candidiasis.
C) amoebiasis.
D) bacterial vaginosis.

Question 6

Staphylococcus aureus is the causative agent of

A) bacterial vaginosis.
B) puerperal fever.
C) toxic shock syndrome.
D) gas gangrene.
E) bacterial vaginosis AND puerperal fever.

Question 7

The most common urinary infection is

A) vulvovaginal candidiasis.
B) toxic shock syndrome.
C) bacterial cystitis.
D) bacterial vaginosis.

Question 8

Bacterial cystitis

A) is a common nosocomial disease.
B) is typically caused by E. coli.
C) may occur through the use of a catheter.
D) is unusual in men under 50.
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 9

Treponema pallidum

A) is the organism that causes syphilis.
B) is a spirochete.
C) can be more easily viewed with dark-field illumination.
D) has become less virulent over time.
E) All of the above are correct.

Question 10

Toxic shock syndrome

A) is due to exotoxins produced by S. pyogenes.
B) is due to exotoxins produced by S. aureus.
C) may spread from person to person.
D) has a very low rate of recurrence, approximately 1%.

Question 11

Typically pathogenic Neisseria gonorrheae

A) secretes transferrin.
B) destroys IgA.
C) destroys IgM.
D) is very immunogenic.

Question 12

A disease in which the urinary system is infected from the bloodstream is known as

A) cystitis.
B) pyelonephritis.
C) candidiasis.
D) leptospirosis.

Question 13

Leptospirosis is often contracted

A) by eating infected animals.
B) by eating contaminated vegetables.
C) from contaminated animal urine.
D) by the respiratory route.

Question 14

The normal flora of the lower urethra may show

A) Lactobacillus.
B) Staphylococcus.
C) Corynebacterium.
D) Bacteroides.
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 15

The normal flora of the genital tract of women is

A) affected by estrogen levels.
B) dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.
C) unchanging.
D) typically composed of E. coli.
E) affected by estrogen levels AND dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.

Question 16

The urinary tract above the bladder usually shows

A) E. coli.
B) S. aureus.
C) P. vulgaris.
D) no bacteria.
E) E. coli AND S. aureus.

Question 17

Untreated gonorrhea in males may lead to

A) sterility.
B) urinary tract infections.
C) prostatic abscesses.
D) orchitis.
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 18

Among the major causes of vulvovaginal candidiasis is/are

A) sexual promiscuity.
B) intense antibacterial treatment.
C) disruption of normal flora.
D) the use of oral contraceptives.
E) intense antibacterial treatment, disruption of normal flora AND the use of oral contraceptives.

Question 19

Gonococci selectively attach to certain epithelial cells by

A) pili.
B) flagella.
C) cilia.
D) actin bridges.
E) flagella AND cilia.

Question 20

The incubation period of gonorrhea is approximately

A) 2-5 days.
B) 1-2 weeks.
C) 14-21 days.
D) several months.

Question 21

The reservoir of T. pallidum is the

A) guinea pig.
B) fox.
C) bat.
D) human.

Question 22

The presence of a hard chancre in primary syphilis is representative of the body's

A) intense inflammatory response.
B) antibody response.
C) rejection of the invaded tissue.
D) septicemia due to infiltration of the organism.

Question 23

Which of the following mimics the infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhea?

A) C. trachomatis
B) M. pneumonia
C) T. pallidum
D) E. coli

Question 24

The disease that results from Chlamydia trachomatis possibly attaching to sperm and ascending into the fallopian tubes is

A) conjunctivitis.
B) neonatorum ophthalmia.
C) pelvic inflammatory disease.
D) trachoma.

Question 25

During which stage of pregnancy can T. pallidum cross the placenta and possibly infect the fetus?

A) first trimester.
B) second trimester.
C) third trimester.
D) any stage.

Question 26

Which of the following manifests itself in three clinical stages?

A) gonorrhea
B) syphilis
C) trachoma
D) non-gonococcal urethritis

Question 27

The T. pallidum of syphilis can be transmitted by

A) sexual or oral contact.
B) contact with contaminated objects.
C) clothing.
D) the fecal-oral route.

Question 28

Which of the following diseases may manifest themselves with painful genital ulcers?

A) chancroid
B) rubeola
C) herpes
D) leptospirosis
E) chancroid AND leptospirosis

Question 29

Compared to the first big syphilis epidemic several hundred years ago in Europe, the strains of Treponema pallidum that cause syphilis today

A) tend to be more virulent.
B) tend to be less virulent.
C) are about equally virulent.
D) cannot be compared.

Question 30

The treatment of neonates with an erythromycin ointment placed directly into the eyes is to prevent

A) viral conjunctivitis.
B) cataracts.
C) herpes.
D) ophthalmia neonatorum.

Question 31

Which of the following is a small Gram-negative rod requiring X-factor for growth?

A) Escherichia coli.
B) Treponema pallidum.
C) Neisseria gonorrheae.
D) Haemophilus ducreyi.

Question 32

The infectious form of Chlamydia trachomatis is a(n)

A) reticulate body.
B) elementary body.
C) primary element.
D) core body.

Question 33

Treponema pallidum is similar in shape to

A) Escherichia coli.
B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Leptospira interrogans.
D) herpes virus.

Question 34

The causative agent of syphilis is

A) papilloma virus.
B) Neisseria gonorrheae.
C) Chlamydia trachomatis.
D) Treponema pallidum.

Question 35

The usual cause of genital herpes is

A) herpes simplex virus type 1.
B) herpes simplex virus type 2.
C) herpes simplex virus type 3.
D) herpes simplex virus type 4.

Question 36

The most common reportable STD in the U.S. is

A) gonorrhea.
B) chlamydial infections.
C) syphilis.
D) AIDS.

Question 37

In which disease is a gumma formed?

A) primary syphilis
B) secondary gonorrhea
C) tertiary syphilis
D) diphtheria

Question 38

During which stage of syphilis is the patient non-infectious?

A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fifth

Question 39

The sexually transmitted disease characterized by painful genital ulcers is

A) chancroid.
B) syphilis.
C) gonorrhea.
D) trachoma.

Question 40

Which of the following viruses maintains a latent state in nerve cells?

A) herpes virus.
B) hepatitis A virus.
C) Norwalk virus.
D) rotavirus.

Question 41

Which of the following is associated with cervical cancer?

A) gonorrhea
B) genital warts
C) syphilis
D) chancroid

Question 42

Most strains of gonococcus do not survive long outside the body.

Question 43

A single exposure to HPV results in infection _______ of the time.

A) 10%
B) 30%
C) 60%
D) 100%

Question 44

Human papillomavirus is

A) a small, non-enveloped double-stranded DNA virus.
B) a small, enveloped double-stranded DNA virus.
C) a large, enveloped double-stranded RNA virus.
D) a small, non-enveloped single-stranded DNA virus.

Question 45

HIV adversely affects

A) red blood cells.
B) nerve cells.
C) macrophages.
D) T helper cells.
E) macrophages AND T helper cells.

Question 46

Urine contains antimicrobial substances.

Question 47

There is no long-lasting immunity to gonorrhea and one may contract gonorrhea repeatedly.

Question 48

The drug(s) used to treat genital herpes is/are

A) penicillin.
B) erythromycin.
C) acyclovir.
D) famciclovir.
E) acyclovir AND famciclovir.

Question 49

HPV

A) can integrate into the host's chromosome.
B) may be split into cancer-associated and wart-causing types.
C) infections always lead to cancer.
D) cannot infect newborns at birth.
E) can integrate into the host's chromosome AND may be split into cancer-associated and wart-causing types.

Question 50

Trichomoniasis is caused by a

A) fungus.
B) virus.
C) bacteria.
D) protozoan.

Question 51

Trichomonas vaginalis is an unusual eukaryote in that it

A) has chloroplasts.
B) lacks mitochondria.
C) has flagella.
D) lacks a nuclear membrane.

Question 52

HIV typically attaches to

A) protein
B) C3b.
C) C5a.
D) CD4.

Question 53

Herpes simplex, like other ulcerating genital diseases,

A) promotes the spread of AIDS.
B) inhibits the spread of AIDS.
C) inhibits the growth of other viral disease.
D) is easily cured with antibiotics.

Question 54

HIV attacks a variety of cell types but the most critical are

A) red blood cells.
B) nerve cells.
C) platelets.
D) T helper cells.

Question 55

Women are more likely than men to get urinary tract infections due to anatomy.

Question 56

Toxic shock syndrome toxins are superantigens.

Question 57

HIV may be present in

A) blood.
B) semen.
C) tears.
D) vaginal secretions.
E) blood, semen AND vaginal secretions.

Question 58

The most common of the sexually transmitted viral diseases agents is

A) human papillomavirus.
B) herpes virus.
C) human immunodeficiency virus.
D) leptospirosis.

Question 59

Treatment of HIV attempts to

A) block reverse transcriptase activity.
B) block attachment to host cells.
C) block viral integrase.
D) block viral protease activity.
E) All of the above

Question 60

The human immunodeficiency virus is a(n)

A) non-enveloped double-stranded DNA virus.
B) enveloped double-stranded DNA virus.
C) enveloped single-stranded RNA virus.
D) non-enveloped single-stranded DNA virus.

Question 61

Trichomonas vaginalis lacks mitochondria.

Question 62

Genital herpes may be cured with the use of acyclovir or famciclovir.

Question 63

Why is puerperal fever not regarded as a sexually transmitted disease? What spreads the disease?

A) A physician that doesn't observe proper sterile technique may introduce bacteria from the environment into the genitourinary tract of a woman during delivery of a child, inducing puerperal fever several days later.
B) The trauma of the delivery of the placenta through the vaginal tract after the fetus introduces bacteria directly into the bloodstream, resulting in puerperal fever.
C) A woman's own normal fecal flora can occasionally cause puerperal fever if it contaminates the genitourinary tract following delivery. This can especially occur after an episiotomy procedure (cutting between the vaginal opening and the rectum).
D) A physician that doesn't observe proper sterile technique may introduce bacteria from the environment into the genitourinary tract of a woman during delivery of a child, inducing puerperal fever several days later AND a woman's own normal fecal flora can occasionally cause puerperal fever if it contaminates the genitourinary tract following delivery. This can especially occur after an episiotomy procedure (cutting between the vaginal opening and the rectum).

Question 64

Herpes simplex enhances the spread of AIDS.

Question 65

Protease inhibitors are useful in curing AIDS.

Question 66

What changes might occur in the vagina if lactobacilli were eliminated?

A) The acidic pH might change to a more neutral (and pathogen-fostering) level.
B) Lactobacilli often produce the anti-anaerobic bacteria compound hydrogen peroxide. Without it, anaerobic pathogens might cause disease states (e.g. gas gangrene).
C) There would be no change in the health of the woman-other members of the normal flora would 'fill in the gap' in the population, resulting in no overall change.
D) The acidic pH might change to a more neutral (and pathogen-fostering) level AND lactobacilli often produce the anti-anaerobic bacteria compound hydrogen peroxide. Without it, anaerobic pathogens might cause disease states (e.g. gas gangrene).

Question 67

Why should scarring of a fallopian tube raise the risks of an ectopic pregnancy?

A) Scarring may slow the progression of the ovum (egg) from the fallopian tubes into the uterus. If it is fertilized by a sperm cell while it is stopped in the fallopian tube, it may implant there, resulting in an ectopic pregnancy.
B) Scarring can completely block the ovum (egg) from being able to exit the fallopian tube to enter the uterus. It may implant in the wall of the fallopian tube (since it can't enter the uterus) and result in an ectopic pregnancy.
C) Scarring may allow the sperm cells to enter the fallopian tubes and bind to the scar tissue. The inflammatory response generated when this occurs is termed an ectopic pregnancy.
D) Scarring of the fallopian tubes results from undiagnosed bacterial infections. These bacteria can also make the lining of the uterus inhospitable to implantation of a fertilized egg. If the fertilized egg can't implant into the wall of the uterus, it may travel back into the fallopian tube and implant there instead, resulting in an ectopic pregnancy.

Question 68

Typically C. albicans causes no symptoms.

Question 69

Why might an individual with an STD need to be checked for other STDs, even though he/she has no symptoms of any others?

A) Several STD-causing pathogens are known to 'piggy back' on each other, being carried into the genital tract together.
B) A diagnosis of an STD implies that the individual engaged in unprotected sexual intercourse. Several STDs are largely asymptomatic, so it is wise to test for a variety of typical STDs when the patient admits to or shows signs of engaging in such risky behavior.
C) They don't need to be tested-all STDs are highly obviously symptomatic, so there is no need to test for other diseases than the one currently manifesting itself in the patient.
D) It's a public health issue-it's best to know who is positive for what in the population of sexually-active individuals. This lets healthcare professionals act to best safeguard the population as a whole from the range of STDs.

Question 70

The patient is non-infectious in the third stage of syphilis.

Question 71

Former president Ronald Reagan once commented at a press conference that the best way to combat the spread of AIDS in the US was to prohibit everyone from having sexual contact for 5 years. What would be the success of such a program if it were possible to carry out?

A) It would 'cure' the population of HIV/AIDS. Everyone that had it would die off, and no new cases would occur, since sexual contact is the only mode of transmission for this virus.
B) It would be a failure-this 'program' wouldn't eliminate IV drug use or transmission of HIV from mother to child. Sexual transmission isn't the ONLY mode of transmission for this virus.
C) It would be a failure-many HIV positive individuals survive for longer than 5 years, even without treatment (sometimes without even realizing they're positive). Once sexual contact resumed, sexual transmission would also resume.
D) It would be a failure-this 'program' wouldn't eliminate IV drug use or transmission of HIV from mother to child. Sexual transmission isn't the ONLY mode of transmission for this virus, AND many HIV positive individuals survive for longer than 5 years, even without treatment (sometimes without even realizing they're positive). Once sexual contact resumed, sexual transmission would also resume.