Deck 23: Wound Infections

Question 1

The nodular, red, translucent surface material of a healing wound is called

A) soluble skin.
B) irritated scab.
C) granulation tissue.
D) abscess.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Which of the following virulence factors has been associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A) endotoxin A
B) exoenzyme S
C) pyogenic exotoxin
D) endoenzyme T

Answer 2

B

Question 3

S. pyogenes associated with invasive disease characteristically have

A) leukocidins.
B) coagulase.
C) exotoxin A.
D) exotoxin B.
E) exotoxin A AND exotoxin B.

Answer 3

E

Question 4

A striking feature of Clostridium tetani that differentiates it from other pathogenic species of Clostridium is its ability to

A) produce a greenish pigment.
B) form spores.
C) form terminally located, spherical spores.
D) grow aerobically.

Question 5

Wound healing can be slowed by the presence of

A) normal flora.
B) antiseptic ointments.
C) sweat.
D) foreign matter.

Question 6

What percent of Staphylococcus aureus infections are due to the patient's own flora?

A) 10-20%
B) 30-100%
C) 40-50%
D) 0%

Question 7

Wound infections may result in

A) delayed healing.
B) abscess formation.
C) extension of bacteria or their products into surrounding tissues or bloodstream.
D) aerobic conditions.
E) delayed healing, abscess formation AND extension of bacteria or their products into surrounding tissues or bloodstream.

Question 8

The most frequent genus causing wound infections in healthy people is

A) Pseudomonas.
B) Staphylococcus.
C) Pasteurella.
D) Rochalimea.

Question 9

Factor(s) not found in abscesses is/are

A) pus.
B) dead leukocytes.
C) tissue remnants.
D) blood vessels.

Question 10

A wound created by the drag of a knife across skin can be classified as

A) puncture.
B) incised.
C) lacerated.
D) contused.

Question 11

A localized collection of pus in a wound is termed a(n)

A) leukocyte.
B) dead tissue.
C) granulation mound.
D) abscess.

Question 12

Microorganisms in abscesses often are not killed by antimicrobial agents because

A) the microorganisms stop dividing.
B) of the chemical nature of the pus.
C) of the lack of blood vessels.
D) of the high level of oxygenation.
E) the microorganisms stop dividing, of the chemical nature of the pus AND of the lack of blood vessels.

Question 13

Which of the following are involved in coating Staphylococcus with host proteins?

A) clumping factor
B) coagulase
C) protein A
D) leukocidin
E) clumping factor, coagulase AND protein A

Question 14

Which of the following has been associated with the flesh-eating organism?

A) H. lechter
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Streptococcus pyogenes

Question 15

The researcher who did much of the early work on Clostridium tetani was

A) von Behring.
B) Koch.
C) Pasteur.
D) Kitasato.

Question 16

Formation of biofilms attached to fibronectin and fibrinogen coating plastic devices like catheters and heart valves is a virulence mechanism of

A) Staphylococcus
B) Streptococcus
C) Clostridium
D) Pseudomonas

Question 17

The Gram-negative opportunistic rod that can grow in a wide variety of environments, including disinfectants and soaps, is

A)E. coli.
B) S. aureus.
C) S. pyogenes.
D) P. aeruginosa.

Question 18

The normal habitat of Clostridium tetani is

A) humans.
B) animals.
C) plants.
D) soil and dust.

Question 19

Which of the following produces a greenish pigment that may appear in infected wounds?

A) E. coli
B) S. aureus
C) S. pyogenes
D) P. aeruginosa

Question 20

An important feature of many wounds that may lead to more serious problems is that they are

A) well aerated.
B) well fed.
C) sterile.
D) relatively anaerobic.

Question 21

The foodborne form of rat bite fever is called

A) rat bite fever.
B) Haverhill fever.
C) cat scratch fever.
D) Lyme fever.

Question 22

Tetanus prevents the release of neurotransmitters from

A) muscle cells.
B) excitatory neurons.
C) inhibitory neurons.
D) tetano cells.

Question 23

Rat bite fever, characterized by fever, rash, and muscle aches, is caused by

A) Afipia felis.
B) Bartonella (Rochalimaea) henselae.
C) Pasteurella multocida.
D) Streptobacillus moniliformis.

Question 24

Effective treatment of gas gangrene primarily involves

A) use of an antitoxin.
B) use of immune globulins.
C) vaccination with inactivated toxin.
D) surgical removal of dead and infected tissues.

Question 25

Tetanus antitoxin is

A) antibody against the bacteria.
B) inactivated toxin.
C) inactivated bacteria.
D) antibody against the toxin.

Question 26

The toxin implicated in

A) tetanospasmin.
B) exoenzyme S.
C) alpha-toxin.
C) perfringens toxicity is
D) endoenzyme T.

Question 27

Which of the following has not been associated with human bites?

A) syphilis
B) tuberculosis
C) hepatitis B
D) Haverhill fever

Question 28

Streptobacillus moniliformis is unusual in that it

A) forms spores.
B) spontaneously forms L-forms.
C) is anaerobic.
D) has a cell wall.

Question 29

The disease that involves the muscles and often manifests itself first with spasms of the jaw muscles is

A) polio.
B) rabies.
C) tetanus.
D) gastritis.

Question 30

Cat scratch fever is caused by

A) Bartonella (Rochalimaea) henselae.
B) Pasteurella multocida.
C) Teddis nugentaea.
D) Staphylococcus aureus.
E) Bartonella (Rochalimaea) henselae AND Staphylococcus aureus.

Question 31

The organism that grows anaerobically in dead or damaged tissue and produces dense colonies that are the color and size of sulfur particles is

A) Escherichia coli.
B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Actinomyces israelii.
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Question 32

The disease most feared to develop after an animal bite is

A) tetanus.
B) rabies.
C) gas gangrene.
D) actinomycosis.

Question 33

The infectious agent(s) that may arise in a wound from a human bite is/are

A) Escherichia coli.
B) Bacteroides.
C) Actinomyces israelii.
D) Staphylococcus aureus.
E) Bacteroides AND Staphylococcus aureus.

Question 34

Gas gangrene is so named due to the formation of

A) carbon dioxide.
B) oxygen.
C) hydrogen.
D) carbon monoxide.
E) carbon dioxide AND hydrogen.

Question 35

The popular name for tetanus is

A) hydrophobia.
B) lockjaw.
C) whooping cough.
D) consumption.

Question 36

Which of the following has been involved in causing small epidemics in the U.S.?

A) tineasis
B) candidiasis
C) trichomoniasis
D) sporotrichosis

Question 37

Tetanus vaccine contains

A) inactivated bacteria.
B) inactivated spores.
C) live bacteria.
D) inactivated tetanospasmin.

Question 38

The exotoxin produced by

A) tetanoxin.
B) exotetanus.
C) tetanospasmin.
C) tetani is
D) endospasmin.

Question 39

The most common infectious agent acquired from the bite wounds of a number of kinds of animals is

A) Escherichia coli.
B) Pasteurella multocida.
C) Actinomyces israelii.
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Question 40

The most common cause of chronic lymph node enlargement at a localized body site in young children is

A) rat bite fever.
B) dead bat fever.
C) cat scratch fever.
D) mouse itch fever.

Question 41

Clumping factor, coagulase and protein A serve to coat Staphylococcus with host proteins.

Question 42

Both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes

A) are rod-shaped.
B) have fibronectin binding proteins.
C) cause necrotizing fasciitis.
D) have exotoxin A

Question 43

Actinomycosis is a fungal disease.

Question 44

Staphylococci are the leading cause of wound infections.

Question 45

Would babies need to be immunized against lockjaw (tetanus) if their mother had been immunized against the disease? Why or why not?

A) No-because the mother's IgG antibodies would be passed along through the placenta before birth, protecting the baby from the infection.
B) Yes-because even though maternal IgG antibodies might be passed along through the placenta, they will not last forever. The baby will need to create its own antibody response to be protected against future tetanus.
C) No-because maternal IgG antibodies would be passed along in the breast milk, protecting the baby from infection.
D) Yes-because the maternal response to the tetanus vaccine is to produce IgE antibodies, and IgD antibodies are the predominant type in breast milk. And what if the baby isn't breast fed? Therefore, even if the baby is breast-fed, it won't receive the mother's protective antibodies.

Question 46

Coagulase is an enzyme.

Question 47

Both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes have fibronectin-binding proteins.

Question 48

Streptobacillus moniliformis is unusual in that it spontaneously forms L-forms.

Question 49

Why is it not surprising that Staphylococci are the leading cause of wound infections?

A) This genus is readily present as a part of the normal flora on most people's skin, so it could easily enter wounds.
B) Members of this genus are all particularly virulent and highly capable of causing numerous infections.
C) Staphylococci cannot be eradicated from the skin due to multidrug resistance in most members of the genus. Drugs simply don't kill them.
D) Staphylococci are capable of a higher degree of spontaneous mutation than most microbes. This makes them able to acquire antibiotic resistance very readily, making them hard to eliminate by pre-surgical antibacterial scrubs. As such, they commonly infect surgical wound sites.

Question 50

The fungal disease that may be associated with sphagnum moss is

A) candidiasis.
B) actinomycosis.
C) cat scratch fever.
D) sporotrichosis.

Question 51

An abscess is a collection of pus.

Question 52

Frequently sporotrichosis is caused when the infectious agent is introduced into the body by

A) lotions.
B) scissors.
C) thorns.
D) animal bites.

Question 53

What is NOT a reason why an abscessed wound might not respond to antibiotic treatment?

A) The bacteria within the abscess have ceased replicating, and many antibiotics require actively replicating cells in order to be effective.
B) The blood vessels that would bring the drug to the area have been destroyed or clogged with clots, preventing the drug from getting to the microbes in the abscess.
C) The bacteria in an abscess have all acquired multi-drug antibiotic resistance, so any drugs that are used will have no effect.
D) The chemical composition of the pus in the abscess often inactivates antibiotic drugs, making them ineffective.

Question 54

Which is true about protein A?

A) It binds to the Fc region of antibody.
B) It hides bacteria from phagocytes.
C) It enhances binding of phagocytes.
D) It digests antibodies.
E) It binds to the Fc region of antibody AND it hides bacteria from phagocytes.

Question 55

Early work with Clostridium tetani and Corynebacterium diphtheriae demonstrated

A) the importance of thoroughly cooking food.
B) the usefulness of vaccines.
C) the potential threat from spore-forming bacteria.
D) that disease can be caused by poisonous substances produced by bacteria.

Question 56

Tetanus antitoxin can cross the placenta.

Question 57

Bites by little children typically cause few problems.

Question 58

"Flesh-eating" Streptococcus pyogenes is considered a newly emerging disease.

Question 59

Individuals who have recovered from tetanus are not immune to the disease and must be immunized.

Question 60

Which is true of leukocidins?

A) They are superantigens.
B) They kill neutrophils.
C) They make holes in host cell membranes.
D) They bind to Fc regions of antibodies.

Question 61

Rowley Pharmaceutical company produces a drug that promotes new blood vessel growth. Is there any application for this drug in wound treatment?

A) It could be very beneficial-one of the biggest problems with wound infections is their largely anaerobic nature. The blood supply to the area is usually compromised, helping to create the anaerobic environment. Certain pathogenic microbes then thrive in this environment, creating very serious wound infections.
B) It could be disastrous! Part of the reason abscesses lack blood flow is to keep toxins and bacteria from spreading to other areas of the body. Increasing blood flow to the area will provide a highway for these bacteria to seed other organ systems!
C) It could be dangerous-wounds need to cut off blood supply to prevent the patient from bleeding to death. Increasing blood vessel development in the wound site might cause the patient to bleed out.
D) There would be no beneficial effect-the immune response is already in place in the wound site, so increasing blood cell delivery to the area wouldn't increase or decrease the rate of wound healing.

Question 62

Why might Candida albicans become pathogenic in an individual receiving antibacterial medications?

A) This fungal organism can actually utilize the destroyed bacterial cells as a nutrient source and begin to multiply out of control. This can cause a pathogenic state.
B) This is an opportunistic pathogen not normally found in normal flora. As such, when the bacterial normal flora is wiped out by broad-spectrum antibacterial drugs, this opportunist can adhere to and colonize the area left behind.
C) This is a usual member of the normal flora. However, when the bacterial members of the normal flora are wiped out by a broad-spectrum antibacterial drug, this fungal cell type has little to no competition for resources in the affected area. As such, it quickly overgrows and can cause a pathogenic state.
D) This is a protozoan species and part of the normal flora. When the bacterial members of the normal flora are wiped out by a broad-spectrum antibacterial drug, this protozoan cell type has little to no competition for resources in the affected area. As such, it quickly overgrows and can cause a pathogenic state.