Deck 21: Respiratory System Infections

Question 1

The disease characterized by the appearance of a toxin-mediated rash that spares the area around the mouth and causes the tongue to look like the surface of a ripe strawberry is

A) measles.
B) chickenpox.
C) strep throat.
D) scarlet fever.

Answer 1

D

Question 2

The conjuctivae

A) have no resident bacteria.
B) are often covered with bacteria.
C) are populated with S. aureus.
D) are populated with S. pyogenes.

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Rhinoviruses need to be grown

A) in living cells.
B) in synthetic media.
C) on blood agar.
D) at 33°C.
E) in living cells AND at 33°C.

Answer 3

E

Question 4

A bacteriophage is necessary for toxin production in

A). E. coli.
B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Streptococcus pyogenes.
D) C. diphtheriae.

Question 5

Which of the following is associated with the upper respiratory system?

A) humidifying inhaled air
B) warming inhaled air
C) cooling inhaled air
D) drying inhaled air
E) humidifying inhaled air AND warming inhaled air

Question 6

The scientist who developed a system of identifying the variety of strains of streptococci was

A) Hans Zimmer.
B) Donald Sutherland.
C) O. T. Avery.
D) Rebecca Lancefield.

Question 7

Virulence factors used by S. pyogenes may be

A) Protein F.
B) M Protein.
C) a capsule.
D) Protein G
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 8

Diphtheria toxin works on

A) lysosomes.
B) mitochondria.
C) chloroplasts.
D) elongation factor 2.

Question 9

The cause of strep throat is

A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Streptococcus pyogenes- beta-hemolytic, group A
C) Staphylococcus pyogenes- alpha-hemolytic, group B
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Question 10

Rapid diagnostic tests for streptococcal infections may utilize

A) blood agar.
B) antibodies.
C) DNA probes.
D) the Kirby-Bauer test.
E) antibodies AND DNA probes.

Question 11

Enlargement of which of the following structures may contribute to ear infections by interfering with normal drainage from eustachian tubes?

A) nasal chamber
B) nasal conchae
C) epiglottis
D) adenoids

Question 12

The eyes are protected from infection by

A) the washing action of the tears and eyelids.
B) the chemical action of lysozyme.
C) the use of contact lenses.
D) the dryness of the eye surface.
E) the washing action of the tears and eyelids AND the chemical action of lysozyme.

Question 13

Otitis media probably develops from an infection that spread

A) from the outer ear to the middle ear.
B) from the sensory neurons of the middle ear.
C) through the tympanic membrane.
D) upward through the eustachian tube.

Question 14

The eyes connect directly to the nasal passage through the

A) frontal sinuses.
B) nasolacrimal ducts.
C) middle ear.
D) tonsils.

Question 15

Which is used in the vaccination for

A) protein A
B) M protein
C) toxoid
C) diphtheriae?
D) red blood cells

Question 16

The process used for identifying the different carbohydrates of streptococci is called

A) Lancefield grouping.
B) CHO typing.
C) streptococci.
D) fermentation testing.

Question 17

Most colds are probably caused by

A) rhinovirus.
B) S. aureus.
C) Pseudomonas sp.
D)
E) coli.

Question 18

Rebecca Lancefield showed that almost all the strains of b-hemolytic streptococci from human infections

A) could cause rheumatic fever.
B) had the same cell wall carbohydrate "A".
C) had variable cell wall carbohydrates.
D) responded to penicillin.

Question 19

Otitis media and sinusitis are usually preceded by a(n)

A) middle ear infection.
B) pseudomonal infection.
C) oropharyngeal infection.
D) nasopharyngeal infection.

Question 20

The most common bacterial pathogen(s) involved with sinusitis, otitis media and conjunctivitis is/are

A) S. aureus
B) H. influenzae
C) S. pneumoniae
D) S. epidermidis
E) H. influenzae AND S. pneumoniae

Question 21

About 60% of the bacterial pneumonias that require hospitalization of adults are caused by

A) S. pyogenes.
B) S. pneumoniae.
C) S. aureus.
D) K. pneumonia.

Question 22

A vaccine for the common cold is not feasible because

A) the surface antigens of rhinovirus mutate frequently.
B) the cause is unknown.
C) the rhinovirus cannot be grown in sufficient quantities.
D) there are more than 100 types of rhinovirus.

Question 23

Colds are effectively treated with

A) antibiotics.
B) aspirin and acetaminophen.
C) proteases.
D) nucleotide analogs.
E) None of the choices is correct.

Question 24

The virulence of Klebsiella is due partly to the

A) motility of the organism.
B) exotoxin produced.
C) engorgement of blood vessels.
D) antiphagocytic properties of their capsules.
E) exotoxin produced AND antiphagocytic properties of their capsules.

Question 25

The reservoir of the common cold is the

A) family pet.
B) human.
C) infected fomite.
D) fruit.

Question 26

The key virulence factor of S. pneumoniae interferes with

A) the action of C3.
B) the action of C3b.
C) the action of C5a.
D) interferon.

Question 27

Both S. pneumoniae and K. pneumoniae use this as a virulence factor.

A) pili
B) flagella
C) capsules
D) cilia

Question 28

Which is/are true of coccidioidomycosis and histoplasmosis?

A) They are both soil fungi.
B) They are both dimorphic fungi.
C) They are both life-threatening.
D) They may be treated with antibiotics.
E) They are both soil fungi AND they are both dimorphic fungi.

Question 29

Effective preventive methods for avoiding the common cold is/are

A) hand washing.
B) avoiding crowds.
C) not touching one's face.
D) avoiding close contact with people with colds.
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 30

The spread of mycoplasma is through

A) inhalation of infected droplets.
B) the fecal-oral route.
C) an insect vector.
D) a fomite.

Question 31

The rhinovirus contains

A) single-stranded RNA.
B) double-stranded RNA.
C) double-stranded DNA.
D) multiple pieces of single-stranded DNA.

Question 32

The pneumococcal vaccine is directed against the

A) flagella.
B) pili.
C) cilia.
D) capsule.

Question 33

The causative agent of the pneumonia that causes permanent lung damage, may be nosocomial and has a high mortality if untreated is

A) S. pneumoniae.
B) K. pneumoniae.
C) S. pyogenes.
D) S. aureus.

Question 34

The resistance of Klebsiella to antibiotics may be

A) chromosomal mediated.
B) plasmid mediated.
C) lysosomal mediated.
D) capsule mediated.
E) chromosomal mediated AND plasmid mediated.

Question 35

Mycoplasmal and klebsiellal pneumonias

A) have similar incubation periods.
B) have causative agents that lack cell walls.
C) are serious diseases often requiring hospitalization.
D) are both relatively mild diseases.
E) None of the choices is correct.

Question 36

Adenoviral pharyngitis is effectively treated with

A) antibiotics.
B) lysozyme.
C) proteases.
D) nucleotide analogs.
E) None of the choices is correct.

Question 37

The characteristic virulence factor of S. pneumoniae is

A) a capsule.
B) flagella.
C) pili.
D) cilia.

Question 38

Which antibiotics may be completely ineffective in treating a mycoplasmal infection?

A) penicillin
B) cephalosporin
C) tetracycline
D) erythromycin
E) penicillin AND cephalosporin

Question 39

Which of the following are considered diseases of the lower respiratory tract?

A) diphtheria and pneumonia
B) influenza and diphtheria
C) tuberculosis and pneumonia
D) common cold and tuberculosis

Question 40

The disease that closely resembles "strep throat" but is of viral origin is

A) the common cold.
B) otitis media.
C) tonsilitis.
D) adenoviral pharyngitis.

Question 41

Rhinoviruses are effectively treated with antibiotics.

Question 42

Influenza is caused by

A) orthomyxovirus.
B) H. influenza.
C) cytomegalovirus.
D) adenovirus.

Question 43

Although unusually resistant to many control factors, the tubercle bacillus is easily killed by

A) strong acids.
B) disinfectants.
C) pasteurization.
D) strong alkalis.

Question 44

Humans are the only source of the cold virus.

Question 45

Of infectious diseases, pneumonia is a major killer in the general population.

Question 46

Two relatively widespread North American lung mycoses are

A) candidiasis and coccidioidomycosis.
B) candidiasis and aspergillosis.
C) apergillosis and Reyes syndrome.
D) coccidioidomycosis and histoplasmosis.

Question 47

The resistance of the tubercle bacillus to various factors is probably due to its

A) capsule.
B) larger ribosomes.
C) ability to adhere tightly.
D) cell wall.

Question 48

Antigenic shifts may be the result of

A) two different viruses infecting a cell at the same time.
B) the lysogenic conversion of two viruses.
C) conjugation of two viruses.
D) blending of a bacterial and a viral genome.
E) the lysogenic conversion of two viruses AND blending of a bacterial and viral genome.

Question 49

Projecting from the outer envelope of the influenza virus are two glycoproteins called

A) leukocidin and hemolysin.
B) hyaluronidase and coagulase.
C) hemagglutinin and neuraminidase.
D) lysozyme and coagulase.

Question 50

Which is true of hantavirus?

A) It is a zoonosis involving mice.
B) It has three segments of single-stranded RNA.
C) The primary effect is to flood the lungs with fluid.
D) Shock and death occurs in 40% of the cases.
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 51

A vaccine is available for protection from pneumococcal pneumonia.

Question 52

Otitis media is an infection of the middle ear that is rare in the first month of life.

Question 53

The causative agent of whooping cough is

A) parvovirus.
B) M. pneumoniae.
C) B. pertussis.
D) S. aureus.

Question 54

The virulence of the tubercle bacillus is due to its

A) toxin.
B) lysogenic conversion.
C) resistance to antibiotics.
D) survival within macrophages.
E) lysogenic conversion AND resistance to antibiotics.

Question 55

Streptococci are grouped by their cell wall carbohydrates.

Question 56

The sudden, violent, uncontrollable cough of pertussis is described as

A) productive.
B) contagious.
C) infective.
D) paroxysmal.

Question 57

Pneumonias are inflammatory diseases of the lung in which fluid fills the alveoli.

Question 58

The destructive nature of tuberculosis can be characterized as a(n)

A) endotoxin pyrogenic response.
B) immune complex reaction.
C) inflammatory response.
D) delayed hypersensitivity reaction.

Question 59

Pertussis toxin

A) uses part B to attach to receptors on the host cell.
B) uses part A to inactivate G protein.
C) affects the level of cAMP in a cell.
D) affects the level of mucus secretion.
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 60

Klebsiella easily acquire and are a source of R factors.

Question 61

The best way to speed up recovery from a common cold is

A) to dose the patient with ibuprofen to keep the fever down.
B) to take decongestants as a means of alleviating the symptoms of the cold.
C) to take 1,000 mg of vitamin C every day during the illness.
D) None of the above-in fact, the only way to clear out a cold is to let your immune system do its job. Several of the treatments above may actually INCREASE the time needed to get over the illness.

Question 62

People infected with M. tuberculosis are always highly infectious to everyone around them-true or false, and why?

A) True-they are constantly shedding bacteria to the environment around them in high numbers, facilitating transmission.
B) False-while in the early stages of the illness, their tissues are not irritated and damaged to induce the cough required to spread the organism in respiratory droplets very easily.
C) True-as the mode of transmission is direct contact, anyone or anything they touch can be infected.
D) False-since TB requires a very high infectious dose, in the early stages of the disease, the patients aren't producing enough bacteria in their respiratory secretions to be infectious.

Question 63

Mycoplasma is effectively treated with cell wall inhibiting antibiotics.

Question 64

Which is more likely to happen-antigenic DRIFT, or antigenic SHIFT-and why?

A) Antigenic DRIFT-since infection with only a single virus is required, and the random mutations happen as the virus replicates in the infected person's cells.
B) Antigenic SHIFT-since infection with only a single virus is required, and the random mutations happen as the virus replicates in the infected person's cells.
C) Antigenic DRIFT-since random mutations occur more readily when only 1 virus is infecting a cell at a given time.
D) Antigenic SHIFT-since multiple viruses in a cell at once means more RNA polymerase to copy the RNA, and therefore more possibilities for much larger mistakes to be made in the copying (leading to mutations).

Question 65

If you are a 20-year-old healthy young adult and you have to CHOOSE a type of pneumonia to become infected with (and you will NOT get treatment for it), which would be the 'best,' and why?

A) Pneumococcal pneumonia-it doesn't destroy lung tissue and can be completely recovered from.
B) Klebsiella pneumonia-it has the shortest recovery time.
C) Mycoplasmal pneumonia-it has the mildest symptoms and is generally easily cleared out.
D) Viral pneumonia-there are many antiviral medications you can take for this version with very few side effects.

Question 66

Pleurisy and pneumonia are different. Why?

A) Pleurisy is inflammation of the lungs, while pneumonia is infection of the linings that surround the lungs. One is inflammation (not necessarily due to a microbe!), while the other is active infection with a microbe.
B) Pneumonia is infection of the lungs, while pleurisy is inflammation of the linings that surround the lungs. One is inflammation (not necessarily due to a microbe!), while the other is active infection with a microbe.
C) Pleurisy is caused by viruses, while pneumonia is caused by bacteria.
D) Pneumonia is caused by viruses, while pleurisy is caused by bacteria.

Question 67

Which is more dangerous to human beings-antigenic DRIFT or antigenic SHIFT-and why?

A) Antigenic DRIFT-since this produces the quickest and largest degree of changes in the virus structure.
B) Antigenic SHIFT-since this produces the quickest and largest degree of changes in the virus structure.
C) Antigenic DRIFT-the small changes make the virus look like something we already have an immune response in place for, but we actually don't. This lets the virus hide from the immune responses needed to clear it out for a longer period of time.
D) Antigenic SHIFT-the process completely changes the virus, 100%, allowing it to jump into different species (i.e. from birds into humans). As such, we have no responses in place for the new virus.

Question 68

What is the most likely reason why smokers are more at risk for respiratory system infections?

A) Cigarette smoke is carcinogenic (cancer-causing), leading to a much higher incidence of lung cancer.
B) They aren't-this is just a rumor used to get people to stop smoking.
C) Chemicals in cigarette smoke can impair the mucociliary escalator, preventing natural cleansing of the respiratory tract.
D) Smokers take in microbes from their hands into their lungs as they handle cigarettes and inhale the smoke.

Question 69

Why would it be reasonable to treat strep throat with antibacterial antibiotics, but not diphtheria?

A) The illness in diphtheria is largely from the exotoxin produced. An antibiotic won't clear out the exotoxin.
B) The illness in strep throat is largely from the exotoxin produced. An antibiotic effectively eliminates exotoxins.
C) The causative agent of diphtheria is a virus, not a bacterium. The drug would have no effect.
D) There are no antibiotics that have proven effective against the bacterium that causes diphtheria.

Question 70

Why are pneumococcal pneumonia infections so dangerous in nursing homes?

A) There is no vaccine available for protection.
B) There is no longer an antibiotic effective against the infection.
C) This type of pneumonia causes permanent lung damage, and old people often have impaired lung function in the first place.
D) While this type of pneumonia does NOT cause permanent lung damage, the immune system of older people is usually impaired, leaving them predisposed to more serious and potentially life-threatening pneumonia infections.

Question 71

Histoplasmosis may mimic tuberculosis.