Deck 18: Applications of Immune Responses

Question 1

Herd immunity

A) only occurs in a population in which all individuals are immune.
B) occurs in a population in which a large percentage of the population is immune.
C) only provides protection to those that are already immune.
D) is responsible for dramatic increases in childhood diseases.
E) occurs in a population in which a large percentage of the population is immune AND is responsible for dramatic increases in childhood diseases.

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Substances that are contained in vaccines to help induce a better immune response are called

A) primary substances.
B) secondary substances.
C) adjuvants.
D) adjuncts.

Answer 2

C

Question 3

The Salk vaccine

A) contains live attenuated virus.
B) contains inactivated virus.
C) contains a portion of the polio virus.
D) occasionally causes disease.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Attenuated agents

A) may induce immunity after a single dose.
B) may cause disease in immunocompromised individuals.
C) multiply in the body.
D) may revert or mutate to disease-causing strains.
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 5

The virus originally used for vaccination against smallpox is named

A) vaccinia.
B) cowpox.
C) rubella.
D) herpes.

Question 6

The most common adjuvant is

A) ethanol.
B) formalin.
C) alum.
D) aluminum.
E) alum AND aluminum.

Question 7

Which antibodies cross the placenta and protect the fetus?

A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgM
D) IgD

Question 8

The scientist who made variolation safer and more effective was

A) Pasteur.
B) Jenner.
C) Metchnikoff.
D) Fleming.

Question 9

Variolation is a procedure once used to protect against

A) measles.
B) bubonic plague.
C) rabies.
D) smallpox.

Question 10

Almost all of the antibodies found in a newborn are

A) the result of infection.
B) self-made.
C) IgM.
D) the result of passive immunity.

Question 11

Attenuated agents are

A) dead viruses.
B) toxins.
C) weakened live organisms.
D) parts of an organism.

Question 12

The practice of deliberately stimulating the immune system is called

A) acquired immunity.
B) memory immunity.
C) vaccination.
D) hypersensitivity.

Question 13

The last case of naturally contracted smallpox occurred in

A) 1900.
B) 1950.
C) 1965.
D) 1977.
E) 1989.

Question 14

Inactivated immunizing agents are prepared by treatment with

A) alcohol.
B) phenol.
C) formalin.
D) histamine.

Question 15

The term vaccination

A) is a general term that would include the process of variolation.
B) was coined by Jenner.
C) was coined by Pasteur.
D) comes from the Latin for cow, vacca.
E) is a general term that would include the process of variolation, was coined by Pasteur AND comes from the Latin for cow, vacca.

Question 16

A recombinant vaccine is used to protect against

A) polio.
B) diphtheria.
C) hepatitis B
D) pertussis.

Question 17

The Salk vaccine

A) protects against nervous system and gastrointestinal infection.
B) protects only against gastrointestinal infection.
C) is a subunit vaccine.
D) protects only against nervous system infection.
E) protects against nervous system and gastrointestinal infection AND is a subunit vaccine.

Question 18

Whole agent vaccines may contain

A) viruses.
B) bacteria.
C) toxins.
D) polysaccharides.
E) viruses AND bacteria.

Question 19

The procedure developed by the Chinese to protect against smallpox was called

A) Oriental poxination.
B) humoral immunity.
C) variolation.
D) naturally acquired immunity.

Question 20

Toxoids are used in vaccines against

A) Haemophilus influenza type b.
B) diphtheria.
C) herpes simplex type I.
D) polio.
E) diphtheria AND herpes simplex type I.

Question 21

An immune complex is defined as

A) antigen combined with antigen.
B) antigen combined with antibody.
C) antibody combined with antibody.
D) complement combined with LPS.

Question 22

Monoclonal antibodies obtained from a hybridoma provide

A) a large amount of an antibody that is specific for a particular antigen.
B) a single antibody that recognizes many antigens.
C) many antigens that recognize a specific antibody.
D) a large number of B cells.

Question 23

Injection of a single antigen usually results in production of

A) antibody to a single epitope.
B) an antibody that recognizes several epitopes.
C) additional antigen.
D) a number of antibodies each recognizing a different epitope.

Question 24

The vaccine that is stable to heat, has little unwanted material and causes minimal side effects is called a(n)

A) inactive vaccine.
B) active vaccine.
C) toxoid.
D) peptide.

Question 25

Precipitation reactions depend on

A) the antigen having one epitope.
B) the antibody having one epitope.
C) the antigen having two or more epitopes.
D) the antigen having no epitopes.

Question 26

Precipitation occurs when

A) antigen combines with antigen.
B) antibody combines with antibody.
C) antibody combines with antigen.
D) antibody combines with antigen at optimal proportions.

Question 27

Serological tests are most often conducted in

A) test tubes.
B) flasks.
C) microtiter plates.
D) graduated cylinders.

Question 28

Agglutination tests can be used to diagnose diseases caused by

A) bacteria.
B) hormones.
C) fungi.
D) viruses.
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 29

Which type of vaccine has been used in place of inactivated whole cell vaccine?

A) acellular subunit
B) whole cell attenuated
C) adjuvant
D) toxin

Question 30

Monoclonal antibodies may be used in the rapid diagnosis of

A) pregnancy.
B) hepatitis.
C) influenza.
D) chlamydia.
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 31

If a positive reaction is last observed at a dilution of 1:256, the titer is

A) 128.
B) 1/512.
C) 1/256.
D) 256.

Question 32

Monoclonal antibodies

A) are usually of different classes.
B) usually recognize several epitopes.
C) have the same variable regions.
D) are always IgE.

Question 33

The change from negative serum, without antibodies specific to an infecting agent, to positive serum, containing antibodies against that infecting agent, is called

A) ELISA.
B) complement fixation.
C) seroconversion.
D) RIA.

Question 34

Precipitation reactions carried out in agarose are called

A) hemagglutination tests.
B) complement fixation tests.
C) immunodiffusion tests.
D) RIA tests.

Question 35

Immunological tests may determine the presence of

A) only antibody.
B) only antigen.
C) antigen or antibody.
D) neither antibody nor antigen.

Question 36

DNA vaccines work by

A) stimulating production of antibodies against DNA.
B) stimulating interferon production.
C) inactivating the host DNA.
D) having the cell use the introduced DNA to make the microbial protein antigen.

Question 37

A poorly understood, yet promising type of vaccine that causes the host to produce microbial antigens for a short time involves the use of

A) subunits.
B) DNA.
C) alum.
D) toxoids.
E) glycoproteins.

Question 38

Which plant has been used to deliver vaccine?

A) peanuts
B) lima beans
C) spinach
D) potatoes

Question 39

Immunodiffusion tests

A) allow detection of specific antigens.
B) are a simple method that produces visible results in the zone of optimal proportion.
C) allow quantitation of antigen concentrations.
D) All of the choices are correct.

Question 40

For which of the following childhood diseases is a subunit vaccine recommended?

A) polio
B) measles
C) hepatitis B
D) pertussis

Question 41

Peptide vaccines have proven to be cheap and very immunogenic.

Question 42

Inactivated vaccines typically require booster shots.

Question 43

Since many childhood diseases such as mumps and measles are rare now within the US, why is it still important for children to be immunized against them?

A) If we lose herd immunity by removing mandatory vaccination, our population will become susceptible to these illnesses again in a short period of time.
B) There is always the likelihood that an individual from another country could import one of these illnesses into the US, sparking an outbreak of new infections, if we aren't all properly vaccinated.
C) By keeping the population vaccinated, we keep incidence rates of these illnesses very low. This helps to protect people that cannot be vaccinated (very young children, pregnant women, immunocompromised individuals, the elderly).
D) Many of these diseases are HIGHLY contagious, and commonly through respiratory droplet (airborne) transmission. This makes an outbreak within a susceptible population very possible. Keeping the population resistant through mandatory vaccination prevents this possibility.
E) All of the options are correct.

Question 44

Attenuated agents often give rise to a long-lasting immunity.

Question 45

The effectiveness of DNA vaccines stems from the effective production of antibodies against the naked DNA molecule.

Question 46

What would be a primary advantage of using an attenuated agent rather than just an antigen from that agent for a vaccine?

A) This is actually a disadvantage-it's much more dangerous to use an attenuated agent over a subunit (single antigen) vaccine due to the possibility of reversion of the microbe to a pathogenic state.
B) An attenuated agent strongly stimulates ONLY the antibody production (humoral response) of the adaptive immune system. This provides the best and strongest long-term protection.
C) An attenuated agent strongly stimulates ONLY the cytotoxic T cell (CTL, cell-mediated) side of the adaptive immune system. This provides the best and strongest long-term protection.
D) An attenuated agent strongly stimulates both the humoral (antibody) AND cell-mediated (T cell) portions of the adaptive immune response, giving the best comprehensive long-term protection available.

Question 47

Anti-human-gamma-globulin antiserum is often used in

A) direct fluorescent antibody tests.
B) indirect ELISA.
C) Western blot.
D) indirect fluorescent antibody tests.
E) indirect ELISA, Western blot AND indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

Question 48

An adjuvant has been developed from Lipid A

Question 49

A monoclonal antibody is typically IgE and recognizes several epitopes.

Question 50

Anti-human-gamma-globulin antiserum is often used in

A) direct fluorescent antibody tests.
B) complement fixation test.
C) radioimmunoassay.
D) indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

Question 51

The risk of serious illness from measles is 500 times greater than from vaccination against the disease.

Question 52

Alum is an adjuvant.

Question 53

The serology test that may show the antigen-antibody complex as yellow-green under the microscope while using an ultraviolet light is known as the

A) radioimmunoassay.
B) fluorescent antibody test.
C) ELISA test.
D) AIDS test.

Question 54

Blood for transfusion is frequently tested for AIDS by using the

A) complement fixation test.
B) radioimmunoassay test.
C) ELISA method.
D) RIA test.

Question 55

What would be a primary advantage of passive immunity with diseases such as tetanus or botulism?

A) Time. You can quickly neutralize the toxin with a passive administration of antibodies to save the patient's life when no is available for them to make their own active immune response.
B) Cost. It's far cheaper to administer a dose of antibodies harvested from the serum of an actively-immunized animal or human than it is to administer a vaccine.
C) Safety of delivery. It's far safer to administer a dose of antibodies harvested from the serum of an actively-immunized animal or human than it is to administer a vaccine.
D) Handling of treatment. It's difficult to keep vaccines stored properly to keep their potency, especially in 3^rd world countries without adequate 'cold chains' for transport into jungles and deserts. It's much easier to keep a batch of antibodies stable, even in extremes of heat and humidity.

Question 56

DNA vaccines are dangerous due to the possibility of the DNA causing reversion in the inactivated pathogen.

Question 57

Agglutination reactions utilize particles rather than molecules.

Question 58

Active immunity develops only after a natural infection and not after vaccination.

Question 59

Recombinant vaccines and inactivated vaccines typically require several shots to be effective.

Question 60

Would antibodies produced by a patient in response to infection be monoclonal, or polyclonal?

A) Since the infection is from only a single agent/microbe, the antibodies would be monoclonal.
B) Since a single pathogen has multiple antigens, and each antigen has multiple epitopes, the responding antibodies to a whole pathogen would be polyclonal.
C) Since the pathogen would most likely mutate slightly during the infection (producing different epitopes), the responding antibodies would be polyclonal.
D) Since the pathogen would acquire and modify self-antigens during the infectious process, the antibodies produced during the response would be polyclonal.

Question 61

Why is a false positive more significant in HIV testing of patients than in screening donated blood for transfusions?

A) It isn't-both are equally dangerous/significant. False positives in PEOPLE can lead to psychological trauma, but false positives in BLOOD could lead to the useful blood being disposed.
B) A false positive in a PERSON is easily re-testable. This makes it more significant, because we would simply quickly retest the person to verify their actual HIV status.
C) A false positive in BLOOD is easily re-testable. This makes it less significant, because we would simply quickly retest the blood to verify its actual HIV status.
D) This statement is backwards-false positives in blood testing are more significant. If the false positive rate is high and we don't realize it, we're more likely to dispose useful blood. This could lead to acute shortages of blood for patients that need transfusions.