Deck 6: Contraception and Abortion

Question 1

All of the following are advantages of condoms EXCEPT

A)being relatively inexpensive.
B)being available without prescription.
C)being as effective as oral contraceptives.
D)helping prevent the transmission of HIV.

Answer 1

being as effective as oral contraceptives.

Question 2

Oral contraceptives decrease the risk of all of the following EXCEPT

A)benign breast disease.
B)painful periods.
C)ovarian,colon,and rectal cancers.
D)sexually transmitted infections.

Answer 2

sexually transmitted infections.

Question 3

Which of the following statements about condoms pre-lubricated with nonoxynol-9 is TRUE?

A)They are no more effective than ones without spermicide.
B)They decrease the risk of HIV transmission.
C)They cost less than non-lubricated condoms.
D)They prevent urinary tract infections.

Answer 3

They are no more effective than ones without spermicide.

Question 4

The most widely used barrier method of contraception is the

A)female condom.
B)male condom.
C)diaphragm.
D)cervical cap.

Question 5

Oral contraceptives primarily prevent conception by

A)reducing the number of sperm that penetrate the cervix by thickening cervical mucus.
B)blocking sperm from reaching the ovum.
C)changing the acidity of the vaginal canal.
D)preventing ovulation by mimicking the hormonal activity of the corpus luteum.

Question 6

Which of the following statements about IUDs and pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)is TRUE?

A)PID rates are high for the first 6 months of use.
B)PID is typically limited to women who have a history of spontaneous abortions.
C)Most cases of PID among IUD users can be treated with antibiotics.
D)IUD use reduces the risk of PID in most women.

Question 7

The Ortho Evra contraceptive skin patch is worn for ________ before being replaced.

A)3 days
B)1 week
C)2 weeks
D)1 month

Question 8

Oral contraception is NOT recommended for women with

A)a low resting heart rate.
B)an intense exercise regimen.
C)a history of asthma.
D)a history of blood clots.

Question 9

Current evidence suggests that IUDs prevent pregnancy primarily by

A)stopping ovulation.
B)creating a sperm barrier.
C)causing a spontaneous abortion.
D)preventing fertilization.

Question 10

A contraceptive that permanently prevents the union of the sperm and egg is a

A)barrier method.
B)hormonal method.
C)natural method.
D)surgical methoD.

Question 11

A contraceptive that physically blocks the sperm from reaching the egg is a

A)barrier method.
B)hormonal method.
C)natural method.
D)surgical methoD.

Question 12

The main advantage of oral contraceptives is the

A)high degree of effectiveness.
B)high continuation rate.
C)low cost.
D)regularity of periods.

Question 13

The Ortho Evra contraceptive skin patch can be worn on any of the following places EXCEPT the

A)upper outer arm.
B)abdomen.
C)breasts.
D)buttocks.

Question 14

The Implanon implant is effective for how long?

A)1 year
B)3 years
C)5 years
D)8 years

Question 15

Depo-Provera is administered by

A)mouth.
B)injection.
C)implant.
D)suppository.

Question 16

The Implanon implant is a _______________ contraceptive.

A)barrier
B)natural
C)surgical
D)hormonal

Question 17

At what time during a woman's cycle should she insert a vaginal contraceptive ring?

A)any time after her menses is finished
B)after she has ovulated
C)right before she enters menses
D)any time during the first 5 days of her menstrual cycle

Question 18

The "typical use" contraceptive failure rate is based on studies that measure the percentage of women experiencing unintended pregnancy in the first

A)six months of use.
B)one year of use.
C)two years of use.
D)five years of use.

Question 19

A disadvantage of Depo-Provera is that

A)it has a relatively high failure rate.
B)during use,it produces many estrogen-related side effects.
C)after use is discontinued,infertility may result for up to 12 months.
D)it may cause permanent infertility.

Question 20

The NuvaRing offers pregnancy protection for how long?

A)1 week
B)1 month
C)6 months
D)1 year

Question 21

The temperature method of birth control is based on the knowledge that a woman's body temperature goes

A)up slightly just before ovulation and down slightly after ovulation.
B)down slightly just before ovulation and up slightly after ovulation.
C)up slightly just before menstruation and down slightly after menstruation.
D)down slightly just before menstruation and up slightly after menstruation.

Question 22

After intercourse,a diaphragm should be left in for at least

A)1 hour.
B)6 hours.
C)8 hours.
D)12 hours.

Question 23

An advantage of a cervical cap over a diaphragm is that it

A)does not require being fitted by a health care provider.
B)can be used by women with recurrent urinary tract infections.
C)may be left in place for up to 1 week.
D)provides more protection against HIV infection.

Question 24

Which of the following is a characteristic of cervical secretions observed at the time of ovulation?

A)clear,thick mucus
B)cloudy,sticky mucus
C)clear,slippery mucus
D)cloudy,slippery mucus

Question 25

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the female condom?

A)The female condom is less expensive than the male condom.
B)The female condom gives a woman more personal control over contraception and STI protection.
C)The female condom can be inserted before sexual activity and is,therefore,less disruptive than male condoms.
D)The female condom offers potential protection against genital warts and herpes.

Question 26

Which of the following statements about tubal sterilization is TRUE?

A)The procedure normally requires 2-3 days' hospitalization.
B)It is a less risky procedure than vasectomy is.
C)Reversibility rates are high.
D)Serious complications from the procedure are rare.

Question 27

In order for emergency contraception to be effective,the first dose must be taken within ____ hours of unprotected intercourse.

A)12
B)48
C)72
D)120

Question 28

All of the following are considered "natural" forms of contraception EXCEPT

A)fertility awareness.
B)withdrawal.
C)abstinence.
D)tubal sterilization.

Question 29

Which of the following statements about male sterilization is TRUE?

A)The procedure has significantly higher risk for physical complications than does female sterilization.
B)It requires another form of birth control to be used until a sperm-free sample of ejaculate is obtained.
C)It is immediately effective.
D)It is performed under general anesthesia.

Question 30

Tubal sterilization or tubal ligation entails the severing or blocking of the

A)uterus.
B)testes.
C)vas deferens.
D)oviducts.

Question 31

Withdrawal has relatively low effectiveness as a contraceptive method because of the presence of

A)epididymis.
B)urine.
C)cervical mucus.
D)preejaculatory fluiD.

Question 32

Vaginal spermicides must be inserted no more than ______ minutes before intercourse.

A)30
B)60
C)90
D)120

Question 33

If a condom breaks,an appropriate strategy for reducing the risk of pregnancy is to

A)douche right after intercourse.
B)insert a vaginal contraceptive ring.
C)use emergency contraception.
D)switch to an oil-based lubricant.

Question 34

Surgical severing of the ducts that carry the sperm to the seminal vesicles is called

A)tubal ligation.
B)tubal severing.
C)vasectomy.
D)circumcision.

Question 35

The life span of an unfertilized egg is about _____ hours.

A)12
B)24
C)48
D)72

Question 36

Which of the following is a reason that diaphragms have a relatively high failure rate?

A)age of users
B)incorrect insertion and positioning
C)vigorous sexual activity by users
D)discomfort of use

Question 37

The advantages of the contraceptive sponge include all of the following,EXCEPT that it

A)may be left in place for 24 hours.
B)can be used multiple times.
C)provides partial STI protection.
D)is comfortable and unobtrusive.

Question 38

Contraceptive foams,creams,and jellies must be inserted

A)deep in the vagina near the cervix.
B)in the uterus.
C)at the vaginal opening.
D)close to the fallopian tubes.

Question 39

The function of a diaphragm is to

A)cover the cervix.
B)block the fallopian tubes.
C)impair the swimming action of the sperm.
D)provide a sheath-like lining for the vagina.

Question 40

A disadvantage of diaphragms is that

A)a high percentage of women are allergic to them.
B)they requires the use of a spermicide.
C)you must wait to insert them until just before intercourse.
D)you must remove them and clean them immediately after intercourse.

Question 41

When used to describe a fetus,the term viable means that it

A)is moving enough for the mother to detect.
B)has a heart rate.
C)is able to survive outside the uterus.
D)has detectable brain waves.

Question 42

Which of the following is a pro-life view?

A)Abortion has an overall destructive effect on society.
B)Distinction needs to be made between different stages of fetal development.
C)Preserving the fetus in the early gestation period is not a moral concern.
D)Discrimination in health care may result from banning abortion.

Question 43

According to the Supreme Court,a state may NOT bar abortion

A)during the third trimester.
B)in the case of rape.
C)in the case of incest.
D)if the woman's health is in jeopardy.

Question 44

What percentage of Americans believe that abortion is morally wrong?

A)about a quarter
B)about half
C)about two-thirds
D)about three-quarters

Question 45

Which of the following is an accurate description of the rate of reported abortions in the United States?

A)The rate has steadily increased since abortions became legal.
B)The rate has steadily decreased since abortions became legal.
C)The rate increased until 1973 but has declined since then.
D)The rate increased until 1990 but has declined since then.

Question 46

If a woman wants to have a baby eventually,but she conceives earlier than planned,the pregnancy is considered

A)unwanted.
B)spontaneous.
C)abnormal.
D)mistimeD.

Question 47

Which of the following is another term for miscarriage?

A)spontaneous abortion
B)induced abortion
C)aspiration abortion
D)medication abortion

Question 48

The personal considerations for a woman considering abortion should include

A)whether the decision is compatible with her moral and religious beliefs.
B)what her partner's feelings about abortion are.
C)whether she has a supportive network to assist her through a difficult time.
D)all of these choices.

Question 49

Which of the following is a pro-choice view?

A)Adoption is always the best option for women who are pregnant with a child they cannot care for.
B)Abortion has an overall destructive effect on our society.
C)Women who have sex know the potential consequences and need to accept those consequences.
D)Women must have the freedom to decide whether and when to have children.

Question 50

Abortion was made legal by the U.S.Supreme Court in

A)1865.
B)1929.
C)1973.
D)2001.

Question 51

Surgical removal of the uterus is called

A)vasectomy.
B)hysterectomy.
C)laparoscopy.
D)abortion.

Question 52

The most general meaning of the word abortion is

A)a spontaneous expulsion of a fetus.
B)the same thing as miscarriage.
C)an artificially induced expulsion of a fetus.
D)any ending of a pregnancy.

Question 53

Which of the following statements about public funding of abortions is TRUE?

A)Federal funds are used to pay for the abortions of any woman receiving welfare.
B)U.S.law prohibits public funds of any kind from being used to pay for abortions.
C)All states use nonfederal funds to assist poor women seeking medically necessary abortions.
D)Some states use nonfederal funds to assist poor women seeking medically necessary abortions.

Question 54

Recent state laws regulating abortion have focused on

A)funding for abortions.
B)required waiting periods for abortions.
C)regulations concerning parental notification.
D)all of these choices.

Question 55

Which of the following has been identified as a key factor in more than 40 percent of abortions?

A)rape
B)poverty
C)incest
D)age

Question 56

What is the most common reason for getting an abortion?

A)The fetus has abnormalities.
B)The pregnancy was unintended.
C)The couple breaks up during pregnancy.
D)The chances of giving the baby up for adoption are low.

Question 57

What did Roe v.Wade establish as the key criterion in establishing the point beyond which a woman's right to choose abortion becomes markedly restricted?

A)circumstance of impregnation
B)age of the mother
C)viability of the fetus
D)prevailing community attitude

Question 58

Which of the following attitudes toward abortion is held by a majority of Americans?

A)Abortion does not matter to them in any way.
B)Abortion should be legal under any circumstances.
C)Abortion should be illegal in all circumstances.
D)Abortion should be legal under certain circumstances.

Question 59

The Essure female sterilization system works by

A)releasing steady doses of hormones that block ovulation.
B)forming a barrier that prevents sperm from entering the cervix.
C)causing scar tissue to form over implants and block the fallopian tubes.
D)changing the lining of the uterus to prevent implantation.

Question 60

Planned Parenthood estimates that about one in ______ American women will have an abortion by the age of 45.

A)one
B)three
C)six
D)ten

Question 61

Contraceptive failure rate is based on studies that directly measure the percentage of women who experience unintended pregnancy in the first year of contraceptive use.

Question 62

Which of the following statements about dilation and evacuation is TRUE?

A)It requires cervical dilation before the procedure is performed.
B)It is used primarily in the first 12 weeks of pregnancy.
C)It typically does not involve anesthesia.
D)The more advanced the pregnancy,the easier this procedure is.

Question 63

Because of the expense of female condoms,doctors recommend that women rinse out and reuse the condoms.

Question 64

Most induced abortions occur _______________ weeks of gestation.

A)in the first 8
B)at 9-12
C)at 13-16
D)at 16-20

Question 65

The most common method of abortion during the 13th to 24th weeks of pregnancy is

A)medication abortion.
B)vacuum aspiration.
C)dilation and evacuation.
D)induction abortion.

Question 66

A medication abortion involves

A)taking two different medications.
B)using emergency contraception.
C)taking pills plus undergoing dilation.
D)taking pills plus undergoing curettage.

Question 67

Toxic shock syndrome is caused from an uncontrollable fungal infection.

Question 68

A possible physical complication of abortion is

A)cervical traumA.
B)infection.
C)uterine perforation.
D)all of these.

Question 69

What have studies shown to be the most measurable effect on women who were denied an abortion and went on to have a child?

A)The majority of them gave up their child for adoption.
B)They were more likely to fall into poverty than those women who had abortions.
C)The majority of them became child abusers.
D)They were more likely to have high self-esteem than those woman who had abortions.

Question 70

Hormonal methods of contraception work primarily by interfering with implantation.

Question 71

Implanon is a single implant and is effective for three years.

Question 72

Condoms are packaged with an expiration date.

Question 73

The methods available for ending pregnancy primarily depend on

A)what the insurance will cover.
B)what type of facility does the abortion.
C)how far along the pregnancy is.
D)why the woman wants the abortion.

Question 74

Aspiration abortion is the most common method of abortion in

A)the first trimester.
B)the second trimester.
C)the third trimester.
D)all trimesters.

Question 75

The vaginal contraceptive ring prevents pregnancy in the same manner as the diaphragm.

Question 76

Additional spermicide has to be applied to a diaphragm ONLY if it has been inserted for more than 12 hours before intercourse.

Question 77

Surgical birth control methods are considered permanent.

Question 78

The Ortho Evra contraceptive skin patch slowly releases one hormone (estrogen)into the bloodstream.

Question 79

Which of the following does NOT reduce the complications of abortion?

A)early timing of abortion
B)use of the suction method
C)general anesthesia
D)a well-trained clinician

Question 80

A woman needs to have the fit of her diaphragm checked ONLY if she gains more than 20 pounds.