Deck 3: Meiosis and Development

Question 1

The female gonads are the

A) ovaries.
B) oocytes.
C) uterus.
D) labia.
E) breasts.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

The number of sperm cells in an ejaculate averages

A) 200 to 600.
B) 2,000 to 6,000.
C) 20,000 to 60,000.
D) 200 to 600 million.
E) 200 to 600 billion.

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Crossing over occurs during

A) prophase I.
B) metaphase I.
C) prophase II.
D) metaphase II.
E) independent assortment.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

After meiosis I,the number of chromosomes is _______ that of a somatic cell.

A) half
B) double
C) the same as
D) quadruple
E) the logarithm of

Question 5

The male and female reproductive systems of an adult each include

A) gonads, tubes, gametes, hormones and secretions.
B) ambiguous structures that give rise to male or female structures at puberty.
C) spermatids, polar bodies, and oocytes.
D) 200 to 600 million spermatocytes and a few thousand oocytes.
E) 200 to 600 million oocytes and a few thousand spermatocytes.

Question 6

Which of the following structures is unpaired?

A) seminal vesicle
B) ductus deferens
C) bulbourethral gland
D) prostate gland
E) testis

Question 7

Meiosis is necessary because otherwise

A) the fertilized ovum will have too much genetic material.
B) the fertilized ovum will have too little genetic material.
C) reproduction would have to be asexual.
D) too many mutations will occur.
E) growth and healing will become impaired.

Question 8

Synapsis occurs during

A) prophase I.
B) metaphase I.
C) anaphase I.
D) telophase I.
E) the second meiotic division.

Question 9

During the first meiotic division

A) sperm and oocytes form.
B) homologous chromosome pairs separate.
C) homologous chromosome pairs join.
D) the cell becomes diploid.
E) all of the chromosomes temporarily attach.

Question 10

Spermatocytes and oocytes are called

A) grommets.
B) marmites.
C) gametes.
D) gonads.
E) graphemes.

Question 11

The tubular part of the uterus that extends downward into the upper vagina is the

A) clitoris.
B) cervix.
C) labia.
D) rectum.
E) ovary.

Question 12

The ovary of a newborn girl houses about ___ primary oocytes.

A) 100
B) 1,000
C) 10,000
D) 100,000
E) 1,000,000

Question 13

The number of possible chromosome combinations in a human gamete,considering independent assortment but not crossing over,is about

A) 8.
B) 800.
C) 80,000.
D) 8 million.
E) 800 million.

Question 14

At the end of meiosis,the number of chromosomes in each daughter cell is halved because meiosis has

A) two cell divisions and no DNA replication.
B) two cell divisions, but one DNA replication.
C) one cell division and two DNA replications.
D) one cell division and one DNA replication.
E) different DNA replication rates for different parts of the genome.

Question 15

A bulbourethral gland secretes

A) sperm.
B) a mucus-like fluid.
C) blood.
D) saliva.
E) sweat.

Question 16

Spermatocytes and oocytes are

A) haploid.
B) diploid.
C) polyploidy.
D) aneuploid.
E) ooploid.

Question 17

The correct sequence for the steps of meiosis I is

A) interphase-mitosis-meiosis
B) telophase-anaphase-metaphase-prophase
C) 46 chromosomes, 23 chromosomes, then 46 chromosomes
D) prophase-metaphase-anaphase-telophase
E) anaphase-metaphase-prophase-telophase

Question 18

Which is a characteristic of seminal fluid?

A) It consists of sperm and secretions.
B) It is acidic.
C) It travels in the large intestine to the anus.
D) It is free of prostaglandins and nutrients.
E) It travels in a tube that parallels the urethra.

Question 19

Amanda is eating a chicken breast,and wonders how many chromosomes are in each somatic cell of the unfortunate bird.She looks it up - 78.Therefore,a sperm or an unfertilized egg from a chicken would contain __ chromosomes.

A) 23
B) 39
C) 46
D) 78
E) 156

Question 20

The ovary in an adult contains

A) seminal vesicles.
B) many oocytes in various stages of maturity.
C) many sperm in various stages of maturity.
D) a number of mature oocytes equal to 100 minus the woman's age.
E) only a few oocytes that are on the brink of the third meiotic division.

Question 21

After the second meiotic division,the number of chromosomes in each daughter cell is _______ that of the original parental cell.

A) half
B) double
C) the same as
D) quadruple
E) one fourth of

Question 22

The zona pellucida is

A) a protective layer around the secondary oocyte.
B) a protective layer around the sperm.
C) a bump on the head of a sperm that contains enzymes.
D) the biggest constriction of a chromosome.
E) a region of the testis.

Question 23

Primary spermatocytes develop from the division of

A) sperm cells.
B) male gametes.
C) secondary spermatocytes.
D) spermatogonia.
E) somatic cells

Question 24

The number of sperm cells that form from a primary spermatocyte is

A) 2.
B) 4.
C) 16.
D) 100.
E) 8 million.

Question 25

The first step in oogenesis is

A) a secondary oocyte divides to form a polar body and a primary oocyte.
B) a primary oocyte divides to form a secondary oocyte and a first polar body.
C) an oogonium accumulates cytoplasm and DNA replicates.
D) a stem cell divides to yield an oogonium and a spermatogonium.
E) an oocyte divides to yield two polar bodies.

Question 26

A normal oogonium is a(n)_______ cell.

A) haploid
B) diploid
C) aneuploid
D) polyploid
E) triploid

Question 27

Connective tissues are part of the primordial embryo's

A) mesoderm.
B) endoderm.
C) ectoderm.
D) epidermis.
E) spermoderm.

Question 28

The hormone measured in a pregnancy test is

A) estrogen.
B) progesterone.
C) hCG.
D) ADH.
E) testosterone.

Question 29

By the end of meiosis I of oogenesis,an oogonium has become

A) a secondary oocyte and an ovum.
B) an ovum and a tropical body.
C) a secondary oocyte and a polar body.
D) two polar bodies of equal size.
E) two diploid cells.

Question 30

Sperm undergo capacitation

A) in the testicles as sperm develop.
B) in the woman's body.
C) just after the second polar body is ejected.
D) immediately following a sperm's penetration of an oocyte.
E) during sexual intercourse.

Question 31

Meiosis in females

A) occurs and completes continually, producing millions of ova.
B) only completes if an oocyte is fertilized.
C) results in large, mature polar bodies.
D) completes in one or two oocytes every month before ovulation.
E) is completed before birth.

Question 32

__________ prepares sperm for penetration of the oocyte.

A) Maturation
B) Capacitation
C) Differentiation
D) Meiosis
E) Frenulation

Question 33

Rachel is excited when her pregnancy test is positive,but an ultrasound scan at 6 weeks shows no heartbeat.What might have happened is

A) two sperm fertilized each other.
B) an embryo developed from a haploid oocyte alone.
C) two polar bodies combined.
D) a polar body fertilized an oocyte.
E) Rachel did the pregnancy test wrong.

Question 34

The stem cells from which sperm cells descend are called

A) spermatogonia.
B) primary spermatocytes.
C) secondary spermatocytes.
D) spermatids.
E) patagonia.

Question 35

The female gamete just before it is fertilized is termed

A) a primary oocyte.
B) a secondary oocyte.
C) an oogonium.
D) a zygote.
E) a reprocyte.

Question 36

Human prenatal development takes ___ weeks.

A) 28
B) 32
C) 38
D) 44
E) 52

Question 37

The nuclei from the approaching sperm and egg are called

A) prenuclei.
B) mononuclei.
C) pronuclei.
D) gametocytes.
E) gametes.

Question 38

During meiosis II in sperm development

A) spermatogonia replicate DNA and divide mitotically to form primary spermatocytes.
B) primary spermatocytes divide meiotically to form diploid secondary spermatocytes.
C) secondary spermatocytes divide meiotically to form haploid spermatids.
D) spermatids divide meiotically to form haploid spermatozoa.
E) sperm and oocyte meet and merge.

Question 39

Fertilization usually occurs in the

A) ovary.
B) uterine tube.
C) uterus.
D) cervix.
E) endometrium (uterine lining).

Question 40

The head of a sperm contains the

A) mitochondria.
B) cell membrane.
C) cytoskeleton.
D) DNA.
E) testosterone.

Question 41

An embryo develops rudiments of all organs by week __ of prenatal development.

A) 8
B) 16
C) 24
D) 32
E) 33

Question 42

The partial twinning that led to the births of conjoined twins Abby and Brittany Hensel must have happened during the first two weeks of gestation,because the girls

A) have two heads.
B) share tissues that descend from ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm.
C) share only tissues derived from mesoderm.
D) were born on time.
E) have two separate nervous systems.

Question 43

Body parts derived from mesoderm are the

A) nervous system and sense organs.
B) muscle tissue, bone tissue, and internal reproductive organs.
C) epidermis, hair, nails, and glands of skin.
D) respiratory tract, urinary bladder, and urethra.
E) pancreas, kidneys, and lymphatic vessels.

Question 44

The placenta

A) transforms the breasts from fatty sacs to glands that secrete milk.
B) is where blood cells form before the fetus has bone marrow.
C) nourishes the fetus and secretes hormones that maintain the pregnancy.
D) is a membrane surrounding the embryo that gives rise to the blood vessels in the umbilical cord.
E) is the membrane that contains the fetus.

Question 45

Amniotic fluid

A) stores nutrients for the fetus.
B) absorbs wastes the fetus excretes.
C) protects the embryo against jarring movements.
D) prevents the fetus from becoming thirsty.
E) is a fetal form of blood.

Question 46

Which of the following is (are)true about the fetal stage of development?

A) It begins 4 weeks after fertilization.
B) The organ systems initially form, and then grow.
C) The head is disproportionately small at the beginning of the stage.
D) It comes after the embryonic period.
E) It consists of the first three months of the pregnancy.

Question 47

Monica takes the drug Accutane throughout her pregnancy,and her child has mental retardation and heart problems,due to the exposure.Accutane is a(n)

A) estrogen.
B) mutagen.
C) teratogen.
D) pregnancy modifier.
E) carcinogen.

Question 48

The major body part(s)derived from ectoderm is/are

A) the nervous system and skin.
B) muscle tissue.
C) bone tissue.
D) the respiratory tract, urinary bladder, and urethra.
E) the liver and pancreas.

Question 49

Tanisha and Tawanda are twins but do not look at all alike.They are the result of fertilization of

A) one oocyte by one sperm cell.
B) one oocyte by two sperm cells.
C) two oocytes by one sperm cell.
D) two oocytes by two sperm cells.
E) one oogonium by one spermatogonium.

Question 50

Latika and Jeremiah are thrilled at the ultrasound scan that shows that their fetus appears to be a boy.It is the first time this has shown up on a scan.Latika is likely in her ___ week of pregnancy.

A) third
B) sixth
C) twelfth
D) twentieth
E) thirtieth

Question 51

Teratogens are substances that

A) stimulate embryonic growth.
B) cause birth defects.
C) protect against infection.
D) prevent accumulation of cholesterol.
E) cause genetic disease.

Question 52

The inner cell mass

A) helps form the placental membrane.
B) helps form the amnion.
C) becomes the fetus.
D) gives rise to the embryo.
E) is derived from the male genome only.

Question 53

A blastomere is a _____ and a blastocyst is _____.

A) hollow ball of cells; a cell resulting from cleavage
B) fetal organ produced by cleavage; an embryonic organ produced by cleavage
C) fetal membrane; an embryonic membrane
D) cell produced by cleavage; a hollow ball of cells
E) solid ball of cells; three-layered embryo.

Question 54

Two oocytes released from the same ovary at the same time and fertilized by two sperm results in

A) identical twins.
B) monozygotic twins.
C) dizygotic twins.
D) blighted ova.
E) cloned embryos.

Question 55

The allantois

A) destroys old blood cells.
B) gives rise to the yolk sac.
C) forms blood cells.
D) is part of the placenta.
E) is part of the maternal body.

Question 56

Body parts derived from endoderm include

A) epidermis of the skin, nervous tissue, and pituitary gland.
B) epidermis and dermis of the skin as well as hair and nails.
C) the urinary bladder epithelium, pancreas, and digestive tract lining.
D) all connective tissues, including blood, bone, and cartilage.
E) the linings of the blood vessels, trachea, and body cavities.

Question 57

Blastocyst cells that give rise to the embryo's body constitute the

A) blastomere.
B) inner cell mass.
C) outer cell mass.
D) mesoderm.
E) extraembryonic membrane.

Question 58

The critical period is

A) the time during which a sperm can fertilize an oocyte.
B) the time during which an oocyte can be fertilized.
C) the time during which an embryo can implant in the uterine lining.
D) the time during development when structures are sensitive to damage from a mutation, toxin, or virus.
E) labor.

Question 59

During the embryonic stage,the primary germ layers develop from the

A) placenta.
B) blastocyst.
C) embryonic disk.
D) uterus.
E) morula.

Question 60

Which structures are part of the same primary germ layer?

A) nervous tissue, ureters, liver
B) skin, tooth dentin, tonsils
C) muscle, kidneys, dermis
D) bones, blood, thyroid gland
E) uterus, bladder, pituitary gland

Question 61

Erica is 8 years old,but looks as if she is 80.She is thin,with a beaked nose,very little hair,and several diseases that are typically seen in the elderly.She most likely has

A) Alzheimer disease.
B) a segmental progeroid syndrome.
C) a clotting disorder.
D) osteogenesis imperfecta.
E) Werner syndrome.

Question 62

Centenarians are

A) segmented worms.
B) people in the military.
C) people who live past 100 years.
D) people who die just before their 100^th birthday.
E) people who live past 90.

Question 63

The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome include

A) an enlarged head.
B) impaired intellect.
C) an extra nipple.
D) accelerated growth.
E) webbing between the toes.

Question 64

Starvation in the uterus increases the risk in adulthood of developing

A) heart and blood vessel disease, type 2 diabetes, and obesity.
B) depression, anxiety, and panic attacks.
C) severe underweight or overweight.
D) eating disorders and social anxiety disorder.
E) post traumatic stress disorder and hearing loss.

Question 65

Current thinking about the cause of Hutchinson-Gilford syndrome,which is a severe segmental progeroid syndrome,is that

A) the cellular clock ticks much too fast.
B) the part of the brain that controls aging is damaged.
C) abnormal lamin A protein stresses the nuclear membrane, disturbing DNA repair such that mutations accumulate that cause the diseases of aging.
D) a protein called progerin forms clumps in the brain in a way that removes DNA from the tips of telomeres, shortening chromosomes and lifespan.
E) starvation in the uterus sets the stage for diseases of the aged occurring in childhood.

Question 66

The reason that starvation during prenatal development raises the risk for cardiovascular and metabolic problems in adulthood is that

A) starvation before birth and cardiovascular and metabolic disorders are all caused by a single mutation.
B) metabolism in the fetus shifts to preserve vital organs, accelerating weight gain in childhood.
C) lack of nutrients damages the heart in the uterus.
D) the child remembers the lack of nutrition in the uterus and eats too much.
E) it induces an allergic reaction to exercise.

Question 67

Cigarette smoking during pregnancy can cause

A) spontaneous abortion, prematurity, low birth weight, and stillbirth.
B) diabetes and hypertension later in the life of the offspring.
C) lung cancer in the fetus.
D) large fetal size and hypertension in the woman.
E) emphysema and lung cancer in the newborn.

Question 68

A single-gene disease that can cause symptoms in a fetus is

A) Huntington disease.
B) polycystic kidney disease.
C) Alzheimer disease.
D) malaria.
E) osteogenesis imperfecta.

Question 69

Thalidomide is

A) a drug that causes fetal alcohol syndrome.
B) a drug that causes fetal limb defects, but is used to treat leprosy.
C) a drug that causes mental retardation in fetuses, but is used to treat acne.
D) a type of bacterial infection.
E) a vitamin that harms fetuses in megadoses.