Deck 7: Lymphatic System and Immunity

Question 1

Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus?

A) strep throat
B) tuberculosis
C) chicken pox
D) gonorrhea
E) syphilis

Answer 1

C
Explanation: Chicken pox is caused by the Varicella zoster virus.

Question 2

What do eukaryotes have that prokaryotes do not?

A) ribosomes
B) enzymes
C) nucleus
D) DNA
E) cell membrane

Answer 2

C
Explanation: Prokaryotic cells do not have a nucleus or other organelles.

Question 3

All bacteria are pathogens.

Answer 3

False
Explanation: Many bacteria are beneficial to humans and do not cause disease.

Question 4

A prion consists of

A) DNA only.
B) protein only.
C) RNA only.
D) DNA plus protein.
E) DNA, RNA, and protein.

Question 5

The physician prescribed methicillin for Melissa's Staphylococcus infection.He explained to Melissa that certain bacteria such as the Gram positive forms are more sensitive to the "cillin" based drugs.The mode of action of the drug is to

A) inhibit ribosomal activity.
B) interfere with the production of the bacterial cell wall.
C) denature bacterial DNA.
D) speed up bacterial metabolism.
E) punch a hole in the cell membrane.

Question 6

A virus does not contain ribosomes.

Question 7

In what way are lymphatic vessels unlike veins in the cardiovascular system?

A) one-way system
B) contain valves
C) take up excess tissue fluid
D) dependent upon skeletal muscle contraction

Question 8

Where does the lymphatic system empty into the cardiovascular system?

A) tonsils
B) axillary lymph nodes
C) inguinal lymph nodes
D) thymus
E) the right lymphatic duct

Question 9

Which of the lymphatic organs is also part of the skeletal system?

A) spleen
B) thymus
C) tonsils
D) red marrow
E) lymph nodes

Question 10

Choose the following statement that does not describe viruses.

A) They contain a protein coat called a capsid.
B) They may contain genomic DNA or RNA.
C) They are acellular.
D) They are obligate intracellular parasites.
E) They grow and develop.

Question 11

What exist in some bacteria to prevent them from being destroyed by phagocytic white blood cells?

A) pili
B) fimbrae
C) flagella
D) plasmids
E) capsules

Question 12

Which of the following contributes to the ability of a bacterium to resist antibiotics?

A) capsule
B) nucleoid
C) plasmid
D) fimbriae
E) flagellum

Question 13

What are organisms that are capable of causing disease called?

A) symbionts
B) teratogens
C) carcinogens
D) mutagens
E) pathogens

Question 14

From the outside moving in,what is the first structure of a bacterium encountered?

A) cell wall
B) capsule
C) cell membrane
D) cytoplasm
E) nucleoid

Question 15

What is the name of the lymphatic vessels located in the small intestines?

A) tonsils
B) nodes
C) polyps
D) adenoids
E) lacteals

Question 16

Which of the following is not a beneficial contribution of bacteria to humans?

A) decomposers in the environment
B) important in the wine, cheese and bread industry
C) useful in biotechnology
D) symbionts in the digestive tract
E) disease-causing agents

Question 17

A bacterium that is shaped like a basketball would be called a

A) coccus.
B) bacillus.
C) spirillus.

Question 18

Which of the following is not a lymphatic organ?

A) spleen
B) tonsil
C) thymus
D) liver
E) red bone marrow

Question 19

Which of the following is not one of the functions of the lymphatic system?

A) take up excess tissue fluid, return it to the bloodstream
B) absorb fats in the intestines
C) help the body defend against disease
D) production, maintenance ,and distribution of lymphocytes
E) calcium homeostasis

Question 20

Prions cause degenerative diseases of what system?

A) cardiovascular
B) digestive
C) urinary
D) lymphatic
E) nervous

Question 21

The thymus cleanses the blood from the cardiovascular system of cellular debris and bacteria.

Question 22

The acquired defense system only recognizes and destroys cells with antigens that come from outside the body.

Question 23

The membrane attack complex of the complement system is not effective against viruses.

Question 24

What cell types are involved in the inflammatory response?

A) eosinophils and neutrophils
B) eosinophils and basophils
C) basophils and macrophages
D) neutrophils and macrophages
E) normal flora (bacteria mostly)

Question 25

If the lymph system did not do its job,what would be one of the consequences?

A) excess glucose in the blood stream
B) slow reaction time to external stimuli
C) inability to clot
D) edema in the tissues
E) jaundice

Question 26

In antibody-mediated immunity where does the antigen first bind?

A) memory cell
B) plasma cell
C) BCR
D) helper T cell
E) TCR

Question 27

Where do T lymphocytes mature?

A) thymus
B) thyroid
C) spleen
D) red bone marrow
E) tonsil

Question 28

The reason the complement system is called that is because it

A) is part of the inflammatory response.
B) helps other immune responses.
C) involves chemical barriers to entry.
D) produces T and B cells.
E) is composed of normal flora.

Question 29

One set of the body's defenses are called "innate." In this context,this means

A) they act indiscriminately against all pathogens.
B) they work very, very quickly.
C) they only act internally.
D) phagocytosis is involved.
E) they are lost as we age.

Question 30

What are the first antibodies produced by a plasma cell?

A) IgG
B) IgE
C) IgM
D) IgD
E) IgA

Question 31

What is the definition of an antigen?

A) anything the immune system recognizes as foreign to the body
B) a protein produced by plasma cells that attacks pathogens
C) a type of white blood cell
D) a part of the membrane attack complex of the complement system
E) a form of immune deficiency

Question 32

Which of the following is not a sign of inflammation?

A) redness
B) heat
C) swelling
D) pain
E) difficulty breathing

Question 33

Phil was exposed to parasitic worms on a recent field trip to the tropics.Under these conditions,which antibody levels would be higher than normal?

A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgD
D) IgM
E) IgE

Question 34

Which of the following is in the correct order in the formation of antibodies?

A) antigen binds to BCR; B cell divides; B cell activated; plasma cells form
B) B cell activated; antigen binds to BCR; B cell divides; plasma cells form
C) plasma cells form; B cell activated; B cell divides; antigen binds to BCR
D) antigen binds to BCR; B cell activated; B cell divides; plasma cells form
E) plasma cells form; B cell divides; B cell activated; antigen binds to BCR

Question 35

Monocytes become what type of cell in the tissue?

A) neutrophils
B) eosinophils
C) basophils
D) macrophages
E) red blood cells

Question 36

Which of the following is not considered a barrier to entry of a pathogen?

A) intact skin
B) mucous membranes
C) sebaceous secretions
D) acid pH of stomach
E) inflammatory response

Question 37

Certain complement proteins kill foreign microbes by

A) creating interferon.
B) causing them to burst.
C) inactivating their ribosomes.
D) agglutinating them.
E) destroying their nucleic acids.

Question 38

Inflammation is normally a self-limiting process.

Question 39

T cells can recognize antigens because they

A) have enzymes which react with antigens.
B) possess specific receptors.
C) produce antibodies.
D) possess fimbrae.
E) become plasma cells.

Question 40

How can normal flora be a barrier to entry?

A) They cause an inflammatory response that kills pathogenic bacteria upon contact.
B) They phagocytize any pathogenic bacteria that attempt to infect.
C) They use up nutrients and release wastes, preventing pathogenic bacteria from gaining a foothold.
D) They release histamine which causes blood vessels to become permeable.
E) They activate the complement system which punches holes in the invading pathogen.

Question 41

The RhoGAM shot (discussed in chapter 6)given to Rh negative mothers with an Rh positive fetus is an example of what type of immunity?

A) active
B) passive
C) nonspecific
D) general
E) neutral

Question 42

In ______ immunity the individual produces antibodies against particular pathogens while in ______ immunity the individual is given specific antibodies against a pathogen.

A) active, neutral
B) passive, neutral
C) active, passive
D) passive, active
E) neutral, active

Question 43

What do "having the measles" and being vaccinated against the measles have in common?

A) They are both forms of active immunity.
B) They are both forms of neutral immunity.
C) They are both forms of passive immunity.
D) They are both forms of an infection.
E) They are both forms of an immune deficiency.

Question 44

Cytokines are signaling molecules produced by hybridomas.

Question 45

People with allergies do not produce IgE.

Question 46

In SCID,antibodies are missing but T cells function normally.

Question 47

Cytotoxic T cells contain what type of molecules that punch holes in the plasma membranes of potential pathogens?

A) steroid
B) interferon
C) antioxidant
D) complement
E) perforin

Question 48

Shaun was in need of a kidney transplant.What is the most important thing that needs to match between him and the kidney donor?

A) TCR
B) MHC
C) PCR
D) HCG
E) EKG

Question 49

Which of the following is true about monoclonal antibodies?

A) They are produced by a variety of unrelated B cells.
B) They are produced by a clone derived from a single T lymphocyte.
C) They are produced by hybridomas.
D) They are composed of antibodies with a variety of different variable regions.
E) They are primarily produced by mast cells when a person has an allergy.

Question 50

Monoclonal antibodies can be used to treat cancer,identify infections,and determine if a woman is pregnant.

Question 51

When stung by a bee,Jackie goes into anaphylactic shock.This should be quickly treated with

A) epinephrine.
B) histamine.
C) cytokines.
D) interferon.
E) a vaccination.

Question 52

What two sites are involved in the production and maturation of T lymphocytes?

A) thyroid and tonsils
B) tonsils and thymus
C) thymus and bone marrow
D) bone marrow and thyroid
E) tonsils and bone marrow

Question 53

An allergic response is an over reaction of the immune system.

Question 54

Before working at the hospital,Beth was given a Mantoux skin test to detect tuberculosis.If it were positive,the site of the test would become hardened and red.What type of response is this?

A) anaphylactic
B) histamine
C) immediate allergic
D) delayed allergic
E) B-cell mediated

Question 55

Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

A) hay fever
B) rheumatic fever
C) rheumatoid arthritis
D) systemic lupus erythematosus
E) myasthenia gravis

Question 56

All autoimmune diseases are caused by environmental factors such as viral infections.

Question 57

If you were vaccinated against the mumps virus and later exposed to it,you would still be infected but it would not be as bad as if you had never been vaccinated.