Deck 7: Selection Decisions and Personnel Law

Question 1

Jacques highly values helping others and being cooperative. He is being recruited by an organization that focuses on making money at the expense of acting ethically. In this case, we might argue that this is an example of poor:

A)validity generalization.
B)base rates.
C)person-environment fit.
D)reasonable accommodation.

Answer 1

person-environment fit.

Question 2

According to research in racioethnicity, which of these factors seems to have an important influence on whether a racially diverse pool of applicants will apply?

A)the race of the recruiter
B)the diversity of the community
C)whether there are volunteer opportunities through the organization
D)whether the organization is a nonprofit

Answer 2

the diversity of the community

Question 3

Donnie's Shoe Shop looks at applicants' Facebook pages to see if applicants have posted any inappropriate or strange content. This would be an example of:

A)PERSEREC.
B)cybervetting.
C)an Internet hurdle.
D)virtual blocking.

Answer 3

cybervetting.

Question 4

The correlation between the combination of all predictors in a selection battery and the criterion is represented by:

A)multiple R.
B)r².
C)r.
D)y.

Question 5

XYZ Corporation is having difficulty attracting applicants for a job opening. As an I/O psychologist, you have been hired to improve the job's attractiveness and increase the applicant pool. Based on research, the most effective recommendation you can give to the XYZ Corporation is to:

A)put up signs that emphasize the job's basic attributes, such as compensation.
B)increase the corporation's appearance as a cool, prestigious place to work.
C)hide the corporation's reputation from applicants.
D)minimize Internet recruitment in favor of more traditional methods, such as job fairs.

Question 6

According to research, components of an organization's website that improve organizational attraction include:

A)usability.
B)use of the color red.
C)lack of images on the site.
D)lack of information about the company on the site.

Question 7

If Widgets Incorporated wants to improve the diversity of its workforce, which is its best approach for encouraging more diverse applicants to accept job offers?

A)making sure the organization has an aggressive quota system
B)making sure the organization demonstrates that it values diversity
C)making sure the organization avoids engaging in affirmative action plans
D)making sure the organization recruits using newspaper ads

Question 8

Ideally, before choosing tests for a selection battery, an organization should conduct a:

A)training needs analysis.
B)validity generalization study.
C)hurdle approach.
D)job analysis.

Question 9

_____ is the match between an individual's KSAOs and an organization's characteristics and values.

A)Recruitment
B)Person-environment fit
C)Affirmative action
D)Organizational image

Question 10

Ideally, the measures in a selection battery should:

A)be highly correlated with one another.
B)have low correlations with one another.
C)have identical correlations.
D)demonstrate a low multiple R.

Question 11

One factor that makes predictive validity studies difficult to conduct is that they require:

A)selecting employees on the basis of predictors other than those to be validated.
B)involvement of incumbents in the initial test administration.
C)participation of a large applicant pool.
D)highly complex statistical analyses.

Question 12

HPC Manufacturing has applicants complete a basic intelligence test, a personality test, and a dexterity test. It then uses the scores from all these tests to determine whom to hire. Such an array of tests is known as:

A)a selection battery.
B)validity generalization.
C)the multiple cutoff technique.
D)shrinkage.

Question 13

_____ is an approach to demonstrating the validity of a selection battery.

A)Person-environment fit
B)Validity generalization
C)Utility analysis
D)Base validity analysis

Question 14

Which of these represents the BEST approach for choosing tests to use in a selection battery?

A)a minimal correlation between tests that each have unique predictive value
B)a minimal correlation between tests that each have low r² values
C)a maximal correlation between tests that have highly overlapping predictive value
D)a maximal correlation between tests and low multiple R

Question 15

Which recruitment method results in many contacts but could also result in illegal discrimination because of a lack of diversity among the applicants?

A)Internet job boards
B)college placement offices
C)job fairs
D)informal communication

Question 16

Which term describes the extent to which test scores obtained at one time account for variance in criteria obtained at a future time?

A)concurrent validity
B)cross-sectional validity
C)predictive validity
D)criterion validity

Question 17

Which of these is the process of encouraging potentially qualified applicants to seek employment with a particular company?

A)employment law
B)job analysis
C)recruitment
D)utility analysis

Question 18

One consequence of increased cybervetting is that:

A)applicants should carefully consider what they share on social media.
B)organizations are spending a great deal of money on companies that can scrub any negative comments about them from websites.
C)younger generations face intense discrimination because of their overreliance on technology.
D)organizations have poorer selection ratios.

Question 19

Dr. Hawkins obtains a measure of applicant personality. Once applicants have been hired and have been in their positions for at least six months, Dr. Hawkins assesses their job performance. Dr. Hawkins is examining:

A)validity generalization.
B)synthetic validity.
C)predictive validity.
D)concurrent validity.

Question 20

Using multiple tests in a selection battery will likely:

A)decrease the coefficient of determination.
B)decrease the validity coefficient.
C)decrease the need for conducting a job analysis.
D)increase the proportion of criterion variance accounted for.

Question 21

Dr. Zemple wants to see if a manual dexterity test predicts performance. He administers his test to his employees and correlates their scores to their most recent performance review scores. Dr. Zemple is examining:

A)cross-sectional validity.
B)concurrent validity.
C)predictive validity.
D)immediate validity.

Question 22

Validity coefficients will always be _____ in the original sample compared to a second sample used for cross-validation.

A)higher
B)lower
C)identical
D)unpredictably different

Question 23

_____ is a statistical technique that estimates how well a series of predictors forecasts a performance criterion.

A)Utility analysis
B)Decision accuracy
C)Validity generalization
D)Multiple regression

Question 24

In many cases, it makes sense to set a minimum threshold for an applicant's score on a selection test. This minimum is known as the:

A)selection ratio.
B)compensatory limit.
C)cutoff.
D)hurdle.

Question 25

Alayna is applying for a job as a computer technician. She passes a cognitive test but fails a job knowledge test, and thus she is eliminated from the applicant pool. The approach that was MOST likely used in this case is:

A)stepwise selection.
B)multiple hurdle.
C)compensatory selection.
D)at-will selection.

Question 26

The CEO of an organization is concerned that the selection battery for top-level managers is not helpful in identifying the best candidates. She also worries that it costs much more than it should. The CEO's concerns are for:

A)generalizability.
B)undue hardship.
C)utility of the selection battery.
D)validity overlap.

Question 27

Some researchers believe that job components across jobs are related to the same KSAOs and that validation can be carried out by linking appropriate KSAOs in a large database, so that individual validation studies are not required. This approach is known as:

A)validity generalization.
B)situational specificity.
C)shared validity.
D)synthetic validity.

Question 28

Peyton is conducting a validity study on a selection battery and has taken a first step by collecting both predictor and criteria data from incumbents at the same time. The type of study Peyton is conducting is referred to as:

A)content validation.
B)cross-validation.
C)general validation.
D)concurrent validation.

Question 29

To be hired as an airline pilot, one must accomplish three objectives: a 90% or higher score in a flight simulator, an 80% or higher score on a technical knowledge test, and at least 500 hours of flying experience. This approach to employee selection is known as:

A)multiple cutoff.
B)multiple correlation.
C)multiple regression.
D)situational specificity.

Question 30

How are predictors administered when the multiple hurdle approach to selection is applied?

A)least difficult to most difficult
B)most difficult to least difficult
C)least expensive to most expensive
D)most expensive to least expensive

Question 31

To examine whether validities are situationally specific or generalizable across situations, Hunter and Schmidt (1990) recommended using _____ to weight and combine validity coefficients.

A)multiple cutoffs
B)meta-analysis
C)multiple regression
D)utility

Question 32

A small amount of shrinkage indicates that:

A)the original predictive study was flawed.
B)the predictors are not helpful in estimating the criterion.
C)the selection battery is valid and ready to use to select employees.
D)the selection measures are no longer valid and must be replaced.

Question 33

In a multiple hurdle approach, if an applicant fails to meet a cutoff for a selection test:

A)the applicant must be provided a retest.
B)the applicant must redo all other selection tests he or she may have taken.
C)the applicant is eliminated from the applicant pool.
D)the applicant must earn a very high score on the next selection test to remain in the applicant pool.

Question 34

A multiple regression helps organizations select an employee by providing:

A)a predicted performance score for each applicant.
B)a ratio of variance explained to variance unexplained in performance.
C)data on which assessment should be administered first.
D)data on which applicants may be experiencing test anxiety.

Question 35

If Gary believes that a valid test for police officers in Philadelphia would NOT be valid for police officers in Pittsburgh, he believes in:

A)validity shrinkage.
B)validity generalization.
C)validity overlap.
D)situational specificity.

Question 36

If Tanya believes that a personality test will predict performance for both administrative assistants and filing clerks, she believes in:

A)validity overlap.
B)validity specificity.
C)validity generalization.
D)validity synthesis.

Question 37

Lauren validated her selection battery and found a validity coefficient of .74. Later, her selection battery yielded a validity coefficient of .67 when she used a different sample of participants. This drop in the validity coefficient is an example of:

A)validity generalization.
B)cross-invalidation.
C)validity shrinkage.
D)regression to the mean.

Question 38

When predictors are administered in a predetermined order, and applicants are measured on a subsequent predictor only if they pass the cutoff on a previous predictor, the approach to selection is known as:

A)multiple predictor.
B)multiple hurdle.
C)predictive validation.
D)concurrent cutoff.

Question 39

Concurrent validation differs from predictive validation in that concurrent validation involves:

A)collecting data from job incumbents.
B)computing a validity coefficient between the predictor and criterion score.
C)measuring predictors and criteria at two different times.
D)higher costs associated with administering and developing the tests.

Question 40

To empirically cross-validate a selection battery, one must:

A)apply different predictors to the same sample.
B)apply different criteria to the same sample.
C)apply the same predictors and criteria to a different sample.
D)reapply the same predictors and criteria to the same sample.

Question 41

A selection tool that has poor decision accuracy and is also expensive would MOST likely also have:

A)low utility.
B)high utility.
C)a high level of hits.
D)a low level of misses.

Question 42

When the decision accuracy of a selection battery is examined, the number of applicants who were not hired but who would have been successful performers can be labeled as:

A)false positives.
B)correct rejections.
C)false alarms.
D)misses.

Question 43

Which of these would be necessary when estimating the improvement that would likely result from implementing a newly developed selection battery?

A)job specifications
B)selection ratio
C)adverse impact ratio
D)person-environment fit

Question 44

If a restaurant has 5 openings and 15 applicants for those openings, the selection ratio is:

A)1/3
B)1/4
C)1/5
D)3

Question 45

A local swimming pool does not use any selection tests. Forty percent of the lifeguards employed at this swimming pool are identified as being successful at the job. This percentage represents the:

A)base rate.
B)selection ratio.
C)validity ratio.
D)Taylor-Russell index.

Question 46

If an amusement park has 50 job openings and 500 applicants, the selection ratio for the park is:

A)1/5.
B)1/10.
C)1/50.
D)10.

Question 47

_____ is said to occur when the selection rate for a group is less than 80% of the selection rate for the group with the highest selection rate.

A)Base rate
B)Validity generalization
C)Adverse impact
D)Employment at-will

Question 48

The goals of a selection battery are to_____ the number of hits and correct rejections and to _____ the number of misses and false alarms.

A)minimize; maximize
B)minimize; minimize
C)maximize; minimize
D)maximize; maximize

Question 49

The right of employees and employers to terminate the employment relationship at any time, for any reason, or for no reason is referred to as:

A)employment at-will.
B)prima facie.
C)"just cause" policies.
D)reasonable discharge.

Question 50

Which of these is a purpose of affirmative action programs?

A)to establish a quota system whereby numbers of minority members must be hired
B)to increase the number of minorities or members of protected classes in targeted jobs
C)to prevent majority members from getting jobs in the organization
D)to ensure the hiring of unqualified minority applicants

Question 51

In which case might an organization be willing to spend a great deal of money on a selection battery?

A)when there is a high likelihood of a hit
B)when a false alarm is very costly to the organization
C)when the selection ratio is 1.00 or higher
D)when the validity is low

Question 52

Which statement is true?

A)Adverse impact is always illegal.
B)Hiring members of minorities at a selection rate below 80% of the selection rate of members of the majority indicates adverse impact.
C)Affirmative action requires that a company hire unqualified applicants if they are of an underrepresented race.
D)As a first step in a discrimination case, the organization must prove that discrimination was justified by a business need.

Question 53

One method for assessing utility is using a _____.

A)Taylor-Russell table
B)CS&J product
C)synthetic validity coefficient
D)80% rule

Question 54

Lacey was not selected by an organization, and would have done a poor job if she had been selected. Manuel was not selected by an organization, but he would have done an excellent job had he been selected. In this case, Lacey is _____ and Manuel is _____.

A)a hit; a miss
B)a miss; a false alarm
C)a correct rejection; a miss
D)a false alarm; a miss

Question 55

Candace wants to proceed with a discrimination case against her employer, JLH Foods. The first step in this type of case involves:

A)Demonstration by Candace that the selection battery had an adverse impact on her.
B)Determination by Candace that the selection battery was job-related.
C)JLH Foods showing that there was no adverse impact.
D)JLH Foods explaining the business necessity of its selection battery.

Question 56

_____ is key for maximizing hits and correct rejections and minimizing misses and false alarms.

A)A base ratio
B)A selection ratio
C)Validity
D)Utility

Question 57

One problem with affirmative action plans is that:

A)they require the use of quotas.
B)they lead to the hiring of unqualified employees.
C)individuals who benefit from affirmative action may be seen as incompetent.
D)they fail to increase the diversity within an organization.

Question 58

Typically, the smaller the selection ratio, the greater the:

A)possibility of adverse impact.
B)chances of illegal discrimination.
C)cost of the selection battery.
D)potential utility of the selection battery.

Question 59

Which of these tests demonstrates the greatest utility?

A)a test in which the selection ratio is 1.00 and the validity of the measure is .25
B)a test in which the selection ratio is 1.00 and the validity of the measure is .55
C)a test in which the selection ratio is .25 and the validity of the measure is .25
D)a test in which the selection ratio is .25 and the validity of the measure is .55

Question 60

Mary was selected by an organization, and she is an excellent performer. Pascal was selected by an organization, but he is doing very poor work. In this example, Mary is _____ and Pascal is _____.

A)a hit; a miss
B)a miss; a hit
C)a hit; a correct rejection
D)a hit; a false alarm

Question 61

A recent Supreme Court ruling on affirmative action held that:

A)the use of quota systems is the best approach to increasing diversity.
B)diversity on a police force in a racially diverse population is more important than diversity in a university.
C)students should be selected on race alone.
D)there is no benefit to ensuring that schools are racially diverse.

Question 62

What is one potential problem with the current implementation of the FMLA?

A)It does not provide for paternity leave.
B)It allows employees to take time off to care for children, but not to take care of their elderly parents.
C)Many employees cannot afford to take unpaid leave.
D)Most employees abuse the system and take leave for things such as sporting events.

Question 63

Recent research has demonstrated that individuals who benefit from affirmative action are:

A)less likely to succeed on the job.
B)sometimes viewed as incompetent.
C)perceived positively by their coworkers.
D)more likely to believe the organization is fair.

Question 64

In order to hire a disabled individual for a job, a small company would have to renovate its building to put in elevators and ramps. The company might argue that these renovations are not possible because of their high expense. If this were the case, we would say that the required renovations are an example of:

A)an essential function.
B)a reasonable accommodation.
C)undue hardship.
D)prima facie.

Question 65

Which of these is the BEST example of a BFOQ?

A)An organization requires that applicants be female because they will be monitoring security camera footage of the women's changing room.
B)A supervisor refuses to hire African-Americans because he believes they do poor work.
C)An airline requires flight attendants to be female because women provide a pleasant environment for passengers.
D)An organization is required to hire a minority applicant because an AAP is in place.

Question 66

Mary is 55 years old, Jeff is 21 years old, and Jorge is 45 years old. All three work at a computer software firm and all were fired, replaced by three new 20-year-old employees. Which employees are covered under the Age Discrimination in Employment Act?

A)Jeff only
B)Jeff and Jorge only
C)Jorge and Mary only
D)Jorge only

Question 67

Theresa works in a manufacturing plant where many of the male employees put up photographs of bikini-clad women in their work areas, and she is often groped by male employees. Her supervisor ignores her complaints, telling her to "take it as a compliment." This type of sexual harassment is known as:

A)chronic harassment.
B)a hostile work environment.
C)quid pro quo.
D)an adverse work environment.

Question 68

Which of these events would be covered under the Family and Medical Leave Act?

A)the birth of a child
B)the serious illness of a pet
C)permanent disability that prevents the employee from meeting the requirements of the job
D)needing to leave work to vote in a presidential election.

Question 69

One of the most important outcomes of Griggs v. Duke Power is that:

A)it is illegal to hire members of only one race, even if they do better on a selection test, if the test does not predict job performance.
B)organizations must provide reasonable accommodations for people with disabilities.
C)organizations may not discriminate against pregnant women.
D)it became illegal to discriminate against people who are under 40 years of age.

Question 70

Amanda would like to be promoted to a managerial position. Her boss tells her that in order to receive the promotion, she must give sexual favors in exchange. This exemplifies the form of sexual harassment known as:

A)prima facie.
B)a hostile work environment.
C)an unreasonable work environment.
D)quid pro quo.

Question 71

Under the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA), employees are given _____ weeks of job-protected, unpaid leave for family-related issues.

A)6
B)8
C)10
D)12

Question 72

A recent Supreme Court ruling on affirmative action held that:

A)every individual should be considered on race alone, regardless of the individual's qualifications.
B)there is no compelling need for diversity in large institutions such as schools and police departments.
C)a university cannot automatically award global points to every underrepresented minority group member in its admissions process.
D)diversity provides educational benefits to law school students, but not to students in other forms of graduate education.

Question 73

The ADEA protects only employees who are:

A)age 60 or older.
B)age 40 or older.
C)disabled.
D)from another country.

Question 74

A department store uses a personality test in its selection battery for managerial jobs. This practice unintentionally results in the hiring of women rather than men. The type of case that can be brought against the store is:

A)disparate impact.
B)disparate treatment.
C)adverse treatment.
D)quid pro quo.

Question 75

One benefit of increased use of social media to recruit applicants is that:

A)fewer people over the age of 40 will apply to a position.
B)it provides a much broader applicant pool.
C)it makes it less likely that a hiring decision will be challenged in court.
D)it provides a larger selection ratio.

Question 76

Which of the following characteristics was established as a protected class in the Civil Rights Act of 1964 ?

A)sexual orientation.
B)age.
C)national origin.
D)disability.

Question 77

What was the ultimate purpose of the Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act?

A)to require that women be paid equally to men for the same work
B)to require that women be paid during maternity leave
C)to prevent the statute of limitations from running out when discriminatory practice is ongoing
D)to prevent job incumbents from learning how much everyone in the workplace is paid

Question 78

A large public library restructures its work schedules to allow disabled employees to perform their duties. The library has:

A)made reasonable accommodations.
B)made essential accommodations.
C)been subject to undue hardship.
D)established BFOQs.

Question 79

A railroad company posts a sign that says "Women need not apply." Because discrimination is intentional in this instance, the case that could be brought against the railroad is:

A)disparate impact.
B)disparate treatment.
C)adverse impact.
D)prima facie.

Question 80

Bowser's Gym requires that an applicant for a janitorial position be female because a primary duty of the job is cleaning the female locker room while women are using it. Bowser's requirement is an example of:

A)quid pro quo.
B)prima facie.
C)disparate impact.
D)a BFOQ.