Deck 37: Drugs Affecting the Thyroid and Parathyroid Glands and Bone Degeneration

Question 1

Which of the following is necessary to administer proper HRT combinations to postmenopausal women?

A) Testing fasting blood glucose
B) Testing bone mineral density
C) Monitoring hormone blood levels
D) Monitoring symptoms experienced

Answer 1

Monitoring symptoms experienced

Question 2

Which of the following cycles consists of a follicular,ovulation,and luteal phase?

A) The menstrual cycle
B) The endometrial cycle
C) The ovarian cycle
D) The androgen cycle

Answer 2

The ovarian cycle

Question 3

What is the primary mechanism of action of clomiphene as a synthetic ovulation stimulant?

A) As an estrogen agonist that inhibits negative feedback to the anterior pituitary
B) As an estrogen agonist that promotes negative feedback to the anterior pituitary
C) As an estrogen antagonist that inhibits negative feedback to the anterior pituitary
D) As an estrogen antagonist that promotes negative feedback to the anterior pituitary

Answer 3

As an estrogen antagonist that inhibits negative feedback to the anterior pituitary

Question 4

A miscarriage happens when:

A) the levels of estrogen and progesterone are high.
B) the release of FSH is inhibited by high levels of progesterone.
C) the corpus luteum degenerates before the placenta can maintain hormone level.
D) the peak progesterone concentration is higher than the peak estradiol concentration.

Question 5

Which of the following is not a risk associated with long-term HRT in women?

A) Heart attack
B) Osteoporosis
C) Stroke
D) Breast cancer

Question 6

Which of the following can be used to relieve sweats,hot flashes,and headaches caused by too high a dose of estrogen?

A) Estrone
B) Progestin
C) FSH
D) GnRH

Question 7

Estrogens released from the ovary _____.

A) increase secretion of GnRH through positive feedback
B) decrease secretion of GnRH through negative feedback
C) increase secretion of FSH and LH through positive feedback
D) decrease secretion of FSH and LH through negative feedback

Question 8

Which naturally occurring estrogen is the most abundant and active in the female body?

A) Progesterone
B) Estrone
C) Estradiol
D) Estriol

Question 9

Which of the following pairs of hormones is released from the anterior pituitary?

A) FSH and LH
B) FSH and GnRH
C) LH and estrogen
D) LH and GnRH

Question 10

What is the regular duration of menstruation?

A) 4 days
B) 8 days
C) 12 days
D) 16 days

Question 11

Which of the following necessitates the use of hormonal replacement therapy in women?

A) Continued ovarian activity during menopause
B) Removal of ovaries during the active productive years
C) Primary ovarian failure
D) Hypogonadism

Question 12

Which of the following hormones has an inhibitory effect on endometrial muscle contractions?

A) Estriol
B) Estradiol
C) Estrone
D) Progesterone

Question 13

A triphasic oral contraceptive formulation contains:

A) two different-strength estrogen pills and a progestin pill.
B) three different strengths (dose ratio) of estrogens to progestin pills.
C) two different strengths (dose ratio) of estrogens to progestin pills.
D) fixed amounts of estrogen (relative to progestin) in each pill.

Question 14

Progesterone exerts a negative feedback against and causes a drop in _____ levels.

A) GnRH
B) FSH and LH
C) estradiol
D) estriol

Question 15

How does progestin help to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer when added to estrogen replacement therapy?

A) It up regulates the number of progestin receptors.
B) It down regulates the number of progestin receptors.
C) It up regulates the number of estrogen receptors.
D) It down regulates the number of estrogen receptors.

Question 16

Which of the following hormones causes ovulation as a result of a surge in its level?

A) LH
B) FSH
C) GnRH
D) Progesterone

Question 17

Sperm production is enhanced through the synergistic interaction between _____.

A) GnRH and DHEA
B) GnRH and testosterone
C) testosterone and FSH
D) testosterone and LH

Question 18

Which of the following clinical conditions has shown an improvement with hormone replacement therapy?

A) Osteoporosis
B) Dysmenorrhea
C) Infertility
D) Diabetes

Question 19

What is the effect of estrogen on PTH (parathyroid hormone)?

A) Estrogen inhibits PTH that inhibits osteoclasts.
B) Estrogen inhibits PTH that stimulates osteoclasts.
C) Estrogen activates PTH that inhibits osteoclasts.
D) Estrogen activates PTH that stimulates osteoclasts.

Question 20

Apart from individual patient risk factors,which of the following pairs of factors is associated with the potential for adverse effects during hormone replacement therapy?

A) Dose and increased prothrombin levels
B) Increased prothrombin levels and length of treatment
C) Dose and length of treatment
D) Hypertension and hypercholesterolemia

Question 21

Which of the following is an adverse effect caused by the chronic use of testosterone in adult males?

A) Reduced sperm count
B) Hirsutism
C) Acne
D) Stunting of bone growth

Question 22

Which of the following drugs is used for the induction of spermatogenesis in men?

A) Clomiphene
B) Follitropin
C) Chorionic gonadotropin recombinant DNA
D) Human chorionic gonadotropin hCG

Question 23

When patients do not have estrogen-dependent cancer or an active thromboembolic disorder,the drug use in inoperable prostate cancer is _____.

A) diethylstilbestrol
B) menotropins
C) clomiphene
D) urofollitropin

Question 24

Hormone replacement therapy is used to treat dyspareunia,a condition in which:

A) complete cessation of a menstrual period occurs.
B) there is a significant decrease in female sex hormone production.
C) body and facial hair is excessive.
D) vaginal atrophy may cause difficult or painful sexual intercourse.

Question 25

Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of estrogens and progestins in women?

A) Hypotension
B) Liver disease
C) Diabetes
D) Sexual activity

Question 26

Which of the following is a clinical indication for the use of androgens in women?

A) Oral contraception
B) Fertility enhancement
C) Metastatic inoperable breast cancer
D) Hormone replacement therapy

Question 27

The most effective treatment for relief of hot flashes,sleep disturbances,and vaginal dryness is _____.

A) oral contraceptives
B) clomiphene
C) hormone replacement therapy
D) androgen therapy

Question 28

How does diabetes contribute to impotence?

A) It causes the hardening and narrowing of arteries leading a reduction in blood flow.
B) It causes damage to blood vessels, thereby diminishing blood flow.
C) It increases nerve excitability and alters psychomotor (brain) activity.
D) It causes significant protein catabolism and weight loss.

Question 29

Kevin is prescribed sildenafil for the treatment of erectile dysfunction.Which of the following adverse effects can Kevin expect from this therapy?

A) Hypertension
B) Cardiac arrhythmias
C) Jaundice
D) Nasal congestion

Question 30

What is the role of nitric oxide (NO)in establishing and maintaining an erection?

A) NO produces cyclic guanosine monophosphate.
B) NO metabolizes cyclic guanosine monophosphate.
C) NO blocks phosphodiesterase type 5.
D) NO stimulates the enzyme guanylatecyclase.

Question 31

How does arteriosclerosis cause erectile dysfunction?

A) By altering psychomotor activity
B) By potentiating nerve excitability
C) By reducing the flow of blood throughout the body, including the penis
D) By decreasing the formation of clotting factors

Question 32

Jeremy is diagnosed with erectile dysfunction,and his doctor prescribes tadalafil to treat his condition.How is tadalafil likely to help Jeremy?

A) Tadalafil will increase the blood flow to the penis by acting as a vasodilator.
B) Tadalafil will increase the blood pressure in the penis by acting as a vasoconstrictor.
C) Tadalafil will selectively block PDE5 in the penis so that cGMP accumulates and a full erection is maintained.
D) Tadalafil will alter psychomotor activity and increase nerve excitability so that an erection is established and maintained.

Question 33

A patient is diagnosed with erectile dysfunction and is prescribed the drug vardenafil.The drug is most likely to work when the reason for impotence is _____.

A) decreased nerve excitability
B) altered psychomotor activity
C) soft tissue damage to the penis
D) diminished blood flow

Question 34

Raven is under oral contraceptive therapy.In this case,what does breakthrough spotting most likely indicate?

A) It indicates an overdose.
B) It indicates that she has taken oral contraceptives for more than three months.
C) It indicates that she has missed a dose.
D) It indicates that she is using a biphasic formulation.

Question 35

Which of the following is true of selective oral PDE5 inhibitors such as tadalafil?

A) They selectively block cGMP in the penis.
B) They do not affect erection that is not a result of sexual stimulation.
C) They increase or affect erection in men who are not impotent.
D) They are approved for use in women to treat impotence.