Deck 42: Antifungal and Antiviral Aidsdrugs

Question 1

Which of the following viruses cause pneumonia and the common cold?

A) Coronavirus
B) Norovirus
C) Rotaviruses
D) Rhinoviruses

Answer 1

Rhinoviruses

Question 2

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of amantadine (Symadine)?

A) It inhibits early viral replication by uncoating the virus.
B) It inhibits the release of viral DNA into host cells.
C) It inhibits viral neuraminidase.
D) None of these are correct.

Answer 2

It inhibits the release of viral DNA into host cells.

Question 3

What is the effect of the azole drugs on the action of warfarin?

A) The azole drugs completely inhibit the action of warfarin and should, therefore, not be taken together.
B) The azole drugs prolong the anticoagulant action of warfarin.
C) The azole drugs speed the anticoagulant action of warfarin.
D) None of these are correct.

Answer 3

The azole drugs prolong the anticoagulant action of warfarin.

Question 4

Which of the following locations does cytomegalovirus (CMV)occupy?

A) Eyes and liver
B) Skin and lungs
C) Pharynx and eyes
D) Nasal cavity and pharynx

Question 5

Which of the following are the sites of action of flucytosine within the cell?

A) Cell wall and nucleus
B) Nucleus and cell body
C) Cell body and cell wall
D) All of these

Question 6

To which of the following is Reye's syndrome linked?

A) It is linked to the use of antiviral agents in the management of influenza.
B) It is linked to the use of salicylates in the management of influenza, usually type
C) It is linked to the use of acetaminophen in the management of chickenpox.
D) None of these are correct.

Question 7

Which of the following instructions should be given to a patient receiving treatment with delavirdine (Rescriptor)?

A) It must be taken with meals to maximize absorption and bioavailability.
B) It must be taken on an empty stomach or 2 hours after a meal.
C) It must be taken 1 hour before antacids.
D) None of these are correct.

Question 8

Identify the drug classification of the agents useful in the treatment of systemic mycotic infections and candidiasis.

A) Bactericidal
B) Fungistatic
C) Fungicidal
D) Bacteriostatic

Question 9

Which of the following auxiliary instructions should be given to patients when they receive treatment for athlete's foot?

A) Use cotton socks, preferably white or light colors, whenever wearing shoes.
B) Do not wear sneakers or loafers without socks.
C) Change socks more than once a day.
D) All of these are correct.

Question 10

Which of the following has been developed as a new class of ergosterol biosynthetic inhibitor for the treatment of Tinea pedis?

A) Terbinafine (Lamisil)
B) Fluconazole (Diflucan)
C) Griseofulvin (Grifulvin V)
D) Ketoconazole (Nizoral)

Question 11

Select the drug used prophylactically to reduce the severity of influenza A virus in susceptible groups.

A) Tipranavir (Aptivus)
B) Ribavirin (Virazole)
C) Amantadine (Symadine)
D) None of these

Question 12

Identify the principal area where a fungus is encountered that requires drug intervention.

A) Systemic infection
B) Dermatophytic infection
C) Candida albicans infection
D) All of these

Question 13

Identify the primary reason why griseofulvin is an effective treatment option for dermatophytic infections.

A) Griseofulvin binds to the keratin protein for a very short time.
B) Griseofulvin binds to the keratin protein that the dermatophytes need for survival.
C) Griseofulvin incorporates itself into the fungal DNA.
D) All of these are correct.

Question 14

Identify the patient group most commonly diagnosed with esophageal candidiasis.

A) It is most commonly diagnosed in patients with HIV.
B) It is most commonly diagnosed in patients who are receiving treatment with antibiotics.
C) It is most commonly diagnosed in patients using inhaled corticosteroids or those receiving chemotherapy.
D) All of these are correct.

Question 15

Which of the following is used in the treatment of respiratory syncytial virus-induced severe lower respiratory infections in hospitalized children?

A) Tipranavir (Aptivus)
B) Ribavirin (Virazole)
C) Amantadine (Symadine)
D) None of these

Question 16

Identify the condition in which there is an abnormal decrease in the number of circulating platelets.

A) Neutropenia
B) Thrombocytopenia
C) Leukopenia
D) None of these

Question 17

Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action of didanosine (Videx)?

A) Inhibits HIV protease
B) Inhibits viral fusion
C) Inhibits reverse transcriptase
D) None of these

Question 18

Identify the primary adverse effect of oral ketoconazole (Nizoral).

A) Ototoxicity
B) Renal toxicity
C) Hepatic toxicity
D) None of these

Question 19

Identify the correct statement about taking nelfinavir (Viracept)while taking oral contraceptives.

A) It counteracts oral contraceptive action by decreasing the levels of estrogen.
B) Alternate or additional contraceptives to avoid failure and pregnancy must be used.
C) It counteracts oral contraceptive action by decreasing the blood levels of progestins.
D) All of these are correct.

Question 20

Patients taking acyclovir (Zovirax)may develop adverse effects such as:

A) hypotension and congestive heart failure.
B) blurred vision or tinnitus.
C) thrombocytopenia.
D) leucopenia.

Question 21

Select the statement that best explains why it has not been possible to develop a vaccine for HIV.

A) HIV rapidly replicates and undergoes mutations so frequently that even small changes in its proteins make the virus unrecognizable to host immune cells.
B) The current understanding of the metabolic process and identification of the subtypes of HIV is not yet enough to create a vaccine that would protect against all of the subtypes of HIV.
C) The macrophages, dendritic cells, and T and B cells interact with the protein components of HIV; therefore, no vaccine can be developed until a solution to the interaction between the cells of the body and the protein components is found.
D) None of these are correct.

Question 22

Select the false statement about Amantadine (Symadine)and Rimantadine (Flumadine).

A) Amantadine (Symadine) is taken as a single 200-mg daily dose or 100 mg BID for at least 10 days, and Rimantadine (Flumadine) is taken as 100 mg BID for 7 days.
B) Both amantadine (Symadine) and rimantadine (Flumadine) are used prophylactically to reduce the severity of influenza attacks, specifically the influenza A virus, in susceptible groups.
C) Rimantadine (Flumadine) works by inhibiting the release of viral DNA into the host cell, while amantadine (Symadine) inhibits early viral replication by uncoating the virus.
D) All of these are true.

Question 23

Which of the following is an accurate comparison of Herpes simplex and Herpes zoster?

A) Herpes zoster is responsible for producing innocuous skin lesions, whereas Herpes simplex causes inflammation of nerve roots.
B) Like Herpes simplex, the Herpes zoster virus persists for years in the anterior horn cells before it is reactivated.
C) The reactivation of the Herpes simplex and Herpes zoster viruses is referred to as antigenic shifting.
D) None of these are correct.

Question 24

Select the statement that describes the major site where antiviral action is blocked by NNRTIs.

A) NNRTIs block the ability of the human immunodeficiency virus to attach and enter the cell membrane.
B) NNRTIs block the uncoating process of the human immunodeficiency virus by binding to reverse transcriptase.
C) NNRTIs block the nucleic acid synthesis of the human immunodeficiency virus.
D) NNRTIs block the late protein synthesis and processing of the human immunodeficiency virus by binding the reverse transcriptase.

Question 25

Which of the following best defines the term acute porphyria?

A) A disease caused by the obstruction of blood flow in the large arteries of the arms and legs
B) A potentially fatal illness characterized by vomiting, an enlarged liver, convulsions, and coma, in children and adolescents
C) A disease associated with excessive liver production of delta-aminolevulonic acid and characterized by intermittent hypertension, abdominal cramps, and psychosis
D) None of these

Question 26

Which of the following statements reflects the mechanism of action of amphotericin B correctly?

A) Amphotericin B binds to ergosterol within the cell wall, forming pores that leak electrolytes, especially potassium.
B) Amphotericin B inhibits glucan synthetase, which makes an essential polysaccharide sugar substance.
C) Amphotericin B causes essential nutrients and inorganic substances to leak out of the cell, causing cell destruction.
D) Amphotericin B inhibits the P450-dependent enzymes midway in the process of the fungal respiration chain.

Question 27

Which of the following best defines the term antimetabolite?

A) A drug that is different in chemical structure from the natural chemicals in a normal biochemical reaction and inhibits the normal division of the cells from occurring
B) A drug that is very similar to natural chemicals in a normal biochemical reaction in cells but different enough to interfere with the normal division and functions of cells
C) A drug that is different in chemical structure from natural chemicals in a normal biochemical reaction in cells but similar enough to help the normal functioning of cells
D) None of these

Question 28

Select the true statement related to treatment with griseofulvin.

A) It is usually taken for 3 to 4 months for fingernail infections.
B) It is usually taken for 4 to 6 weeks for toenail infections.
C) It should be discontinued when symptoms get better.
D) It is usually taken for at least 6 months for hair and scalp infections.

Question 29

Select the statement that best explains the activity of the retrovirus HIV.

A) The viral DNA creates RNA replicas of itself that eventually leave the lymphocytes after coating themselves with a protein.
B) HIV reverses the normal host cell process and reproduces by transcribing itself into the DNA of the host cell.
C) The target cells for HIV are macrophages and helper T cells.
D) All of these are correct

Question 30

Select the true statement about the properties of fluconazole (Diflucan)that makes it a good choice in the treatment of cryptococcal and coccidioidal meningitis.

A) It has high penetration into the cerebrospinal fluid.
B) It can be taken for 3 to 4 months to ensure penetration of the CSF because it has very few adverse effects.
C) It is a water-soluble drug absorbed almost completely after an oral dose but has no effect on the central nervous system.
D) All of these are correct.

Question 31

Select the statement that describes the theoretical method by which the activity of a virus may be interrupted.

A) Viral activity could be interrupted by inhibiting the initial attachment of the virus to the human host cells.
B) Viral activity could be interrupted by inhibiting the injection of viral contents into the host cell or inhibiting the enzymes that transcribe or synthesize viral proteins.
C) Viral activity could be interrupted by inhibiting the virus from shedding into the circulation.
D) All of these are correct.

Question 32

Select the reason why terbinafine (Lamisil)is contraindicated for patients taking tricyclic antidepressants,selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors,beta-blockers,and antiarrhythmics.

A) These drugs are metabolized through the enzyme system inhibited by terbinafine.
B) These drugs are metabolized through the enzyme system and does not let terbinafine inhibit the system.
C) These drugs increase the rate of metabolism of terbinafine, thereby decreasing its effectiveness.
D) None of these are correct.

Question 33

Which of the following statements is true about griseofulvin?

A) The presence of food does not alter the rate of absorption of griseofulvin.
B) The presence of food increases the absorption of griseofulvin.
C) The presence of food decreases the rate of the absorption of griseofulvin.
D) None of these are correct.

Question 34

Which of the following best reflects the advantages of nystatin?

A) It exhibits little or no absorption following oral administration and little adverse effects.
B) Nystatin remains unmetabolized in the intestine, which makes it a good choice in the treatment of intestinal candidiasis.
C) It is a good choice for the treatment of pregnant women because the drug cannot affect developing fetal tissues.
D) All of these are correct.

Question 35

Select the correct mechanism of action in the ophthalmic treatment with idoxuridine (Dendrid,Herplex).

A) It inhibits viral DNA synthesis by blocking incorporation of thymidine.
B) It inhibits viral DNA synthesis by inhibiting viral replication.
C) It inhibits viral DNA synthesis by inhibiting viral DNA synthesis and the replacement of the protein guanosine.
D) None of these are correct.

Question 36

Select the statement that describes the physical requirements for a diagnosis of AIDS to be made.

A) A profound depletion of regulatory cells to less than 200 to 500 cells/mm³
B) A profound depletion of memory cells to 200 to 500 cells/mm³
C) A profound depletion of T-lymphocytes to less than 200 to 500 cells/mm³
D) None of these are correct.

Question 37

Select the statement that describes the major site where antiviral action is blocked by the protease inhibitors.

A) The protease inhibitors block the ability of the human immunodeficiency virus from attaching and entering the cell membrane.
B) The protease inhibitors block the uncoating process of the human immunodeficiency virus by binding to protease.
C) The protease inhibitors block the nucleic acid synthesis of the human immunodeficiency virus.
D) The protease inhibitors inhibit the late protein synthesis and processing of the human immunodeficiency virus.

Question 38

Which of the following is a true statement about microorganism resistance?

A) Primary resistance occurs when the organism does not respond to the drug because it does not recognize the drug or it has a protective mechanism to destroy the drug on contact.
B) Primary resistance occurs when the organism initially responds to the drug but then stops responding or requires greater doses to kill the organism.
C) Using multiple drugs in combination at the same time speeds the development of resistance to a single drug primarily because of their antagonistic effect on each other.
D) None of these are correct.

Question 39

Which of the following is true of an antigenic drift?

A) Small changes in viral surface proteins are known as an antigenic drift and result in decreased vaccine effectiveness.
B) When the virus undergoes a major change in its surface proteins such as hemagglutinin and neuraminidase, it is considered an antigenic drift.
C) Antigenic drift can prevent the antibody from recognizing the organism if exposure reoccurs.
D) None of these are correct.

Question 40

Select the true statement aobut HIV and the immune process.

A) HIV attacks lymphocytes so that the human host is progressively immunosuppressed and cannot fight disease.
B) Patients become susceptible to multiple infections such as candidiasis, pneumonia, tuberculosis, and toxoplasmosis.
C) A deterioration of cell-mediated immunity permits patients to develop secondary cancers.
D) All of these are correct.

Question 41

Maya has been taking itraconazole as part of her treatment regimen.Maya should notify her physician immediately for further evaluation and discontinuation of antifungal therapy if she:

A) accidentally takes a tetracycline 2 hours after the itraconazole dose.
B) takes the itraconazole dose with a meal.
C) performs tasks requiring manual dexterity successfully.
D) becomes pregnant during the treatment period.

Question 42

Chris,an HIV-infected patient,is being treated with Invirase.Identify the instruction that should be given to Chris by his physician.

A) Avoid taking the drug with food.
B) Avoid going out in the sunlight.
C) Avoid taking the drug with other anti-HIV drugs.
D) Avoid getting hematology tests done before receiving the drug.

Question 43

Jessica is on itraconazole treatment.Which of the following is an instruction that her physician should give when prescribing her this drug?

A) Jessica should take a tetracycline together with the itraconazole dose.
B) Jessica should take antacids only 2 hours after the itraconazole dose.
C) Jessica should take the itraconazole dose 2 hours after a meal.
D) Jessica can stop using contraception methods immediately after the treatment.

Question 44

Marc,an HIV-infected patient,is being treated with anti-HIV drugs.Which of the following statements should be told to Marc by the physician?

A) Underlying conditions will eventually die out.
B) The treatment will produce a cure for the HIV infection.
C) The pharmacological treatment of HIV can be taken as a substitute for altering lifestyle patterns that promote the transmission of the virus.
D) Routine chemistry and hematology will be performed before all dosing with IV drugs and periodically as determined by the treating physician for oral medication.