Deck 41: End of Chapter Questions

Question 1

Which generation of penicillins has shown beta-lactamase resistance?

A) First-generation penicillins
B) Second-generation penicillins
C) Third-generation penicillins
D) Fourth-generation penicillins

Answer 1

First-generation penicillins

Question 2

Which one of the following reactions requires emergency medical attention?

A) Disulfiram reaction
B) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
C) Fanconi syndrome
D) Pruritis and photosensitivity

Answer 2

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Question 3

Certain bacteria are resistant to the antibiotic penicillin.This can be attributed to:

A) the broad-spectrum nature of penicillin.
B) the ineffective response toward gram-positive bacteria.
C) chemoprophylaxis.
D) the beta-lactamase enzyme produced by the resistant bacteria.

Answer 3

the beta-lactamase enzyme produced by the resistant bacteria.

Question 4

An antibiotic will have no effect on an infection if:

A) the antibiotic has a broad-spectrum.
B) the bacteria are not resistant to the antibiotic.
C) the bacteria do not fall within the drug's antibacterial spectrum.
D) beta-lactamase activity is not present.

Question 5

Identify the antibiotics/families of antibiotics in which nephrotoxicity is a major concern.

A) Tetracyclines and second-generation cephalosporins
B) Sulfonamides and third-generation cephalosporins
C) Macrolides and fourth-generation cephalosporins
D) Aminoglycosides and first-generation cephalosporins

Question 6

Why is methicillin no longer used for treating patients with resistant staphylococcal infections?

A) Methicillin is no longer resistant to penicillinase.
B) Penicillin-binding proteins have changed so that methicillin is now ineffective.
C) Bacteria have become resistant.
D) Methicillin is no longer available because of its toxicity.

Question 7

A person experiencing a delayed allergic reaction to a penicillin would most likely be switched to a(n)_____.

A) aminoglycoside
B) tetracycline
C) cephalosporin
D) sulfonamide

Question 8

Which of the following are two of the simplest methods used to determine antibiotic susceptibility?

A) Disk test and agar plating
B) Disk test and serial dilution
C) Serial dilution and agar plating
D) Disk test and autoclaving

Question 9

Meningitis can be effectively treated with:

A) first-generation cephalosporins.
B) second-generation cephalosporins.
C) third-generation cephalosporins.
D) fourth-generation cephalosporins.

Question 10

Which of the following are the two dyes that the gram stain contains?

A) Crystal violet and safranin
B) Crystal violet and methylene blue
C) Methylene blue and safranin
D) Iodine and methylene blue

Question 11

A person taking a diuretic and rifampin together should be aware of:

A) increased risk of renal bleeding.
B) excreting orange-red urine.
C) potential oliguria.
D) extreme diuresis.

Question 12

What type of antibiotic action inhibits the reproduction of bacteria?

A) Bactericidal
B) Bacteriostatic
C) Atherogenic
D) Pathogenic

Question 13

Which antibiotics can be used for bowel sterilization prior to surgery?

A) Penicillins and macrolides
B) Aminoglycosides and sulfonamides
C) Cephalosporins and fluoroquinolones
D) Tetracyclines and aztreonam

Question 14

A decrease in rifampin effectiveness when taken with other medications may be due to:

A) increased acetylation.
B) increased beta-lactamase activity.
C) enterohepatic cycling.
D) increased bacterial resistance.

Question 15

With which antibiotics should alcohol consumption be avoided?

A) Penicillins and macrolides
B) Aminoglycosides and tetracyclines
C) Cephalosporins and metronidazole
D) Sulfonamides and fluoroquinolones

Question 16

Which antibiotics can cause photosensitivity as a reaction?

A) Macrolides and fluoroquinolones
B) Chloramphenicol and metronidazole
C) Tetracyclines and sulfonamides
D) Isoniazid and pyrazinamide

Question 17

What should be done if a patient on vancomycin exhibits a flushing redness of the neck and upper body?

A) Slow the IV drip rate.
B) Increase the IV drip rate.
C) Immediately discontinue the drug and administer antidote for overdose.
D) Immediately discontinue the drug and change to another antibiotic.

Question 18

Which of the following is an ideal candidate for chemoprophylaxis?

A) An individual who has had a heart valve surgery and has to undergo a dental procedure
B) A patient scheduled to have hip replacement surgery
C) An individual not responding to her current antibiotic treatment
D) A patient with uncontrollable diarrhea

Question 19

Aminoglycosides can produce a synergistic bactericidal action when combined with _____.

A) cephalosporins
B) tetracyclines
C) sulfonamides
D) macrolides

Question 20

Which of the following first-line drugs used to treat tuberculosis must be given by injection?

A)Ethambutol
B)Isoniazid
C)Rifampin
D)Streptomycin

Question 21

Identify a true statement about the fluoroquinolones.

A) They have a narrow spectrum of bactericidal activity.
B) They are well absorbed after oral administration.
C) They facilitate deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) gyrase.
D) They have minimal bioavailability when taken orally.

Question 22

Which of the following is an alternative for benzathine penicillin as therapy for syphilis infections?

A) Levofloxacin PO once per day for 7-10 days
B) Trimethoprim PO twice per day for 3 days
C) Doxycycline PO twice per day for 14 days
D) Amoxicillin and amoxicillin plus clavulanic acid PO for 10 days

Question 23

Identify the penicillin that has the broadest spectrum among the following.

A) Timentin
B) Mezlin
C) Omnipen
D) Wycillin

Question 24

Jacob,before a colorectal surgery,was given a drug to be taken orally so that the number of bacteria in his bowel could reduce before the surgery.Which of the following is most likely the antibiotic administered to Jacob?

A) Fluoroquinolone
B) Macrolide
C) Aminoglycoside
D) Tetracycline

Question 25

Lillian was suffering from Lyme disease.She was given Biaxin for her treatment.Which of the following is the adverse effect that Lillian is most likely to suffer due to this medication?

A) Rashes
B) Hypotension
C) Nephrotoxicity
D) Gastrointestinal irritation

Question 26

Upper respiratory infections are most commonly caused by _____.

A) Escherichia coli
B) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Moraxella catarrhalis

Question 27

Identify an accurate statement about sulfonamides.

A) Their duration of action is usually long.
B) They are obtained from microorganisms in the soil.
C) They are competitive antagonists of paraaminobenzoic acid.
D) The introduction of the penicillins leads to the alteration of the basic structure of sulfonamides.

Question 28

Which of the following is a correct statement about antimicrobial drugs?

A) Chloramphenicol is mainly indicated for treatment of resistant staphylococcal and enterococcal infections.
B) One of the main indications for vancomycin is the treatment of certain types of meningitis.
C) One of the most serious effects of clindamycin is phlebitis.
D) Metronidazole may cause a disulfiram-like reaction when mixed with alcohol.

Question 29

Which of the following penicillins has the narrowest spectrum?

A) Omnipen
B) Zosyn
C) V-Cillin
D) Geocillin

Question 30

Steven,a 40-year-old man,is being treated for tuberculosis.During his recent checkup,the physician noticed that the durations of action of the drugs administered,including Rifadin,have decreased.Which of the following should be done in such a case?

A) The dosage of Rifadin should be increased.
B) The dosage of Rifadin should be decreased.
C) Rifadin should not be taken on a regular basis.
D) The bioavailability of Rifadin should be neutralized.

Question 31

Which of the following statements is true about cephalosporins and penicillins?

A) The chemical structure of the cephalosporins is completely different from that of the penicillins.
B) The mechanism of action of the cephalosporins is the same as that of the penicillins.
C) The cephalosporins are usually less resistant than the penicillins to the bacterial beta-lactamase enzymes.
D) The cephalosporins are used as substitutes for penicillins in the treatment of certain gram-positive infections.

Question 32

Identify the individual who should receive chemoprophylaxis.

A) Mason, who is obese and has type 1 diabetes mellitus
B) Logan, who has had a knee and hip replacement surgery and has to undergo a cystoscopy
C) Charlotte, who has recently tested positive for pregnancy and smokes occasionally
D) Abigail, who is a swimmer and drinks occasionally

Question 33

Which of the following statements is true of the tetracyclines?

A) They bind irreversibly to bacterial ribosomes.
B) They affect both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.
C) They passively diffuse through the outer cell wall of bacteria.
D) They are a group of bactericidal antibiotics.

Question 34

Which of the following drugs is generally preferred for complicated urinary tract infections caused by gram-negative species of Klebsiella?

A) Azithromycin
B) Cephalosporin
C) Doxycycline
D) Levofloxacin

Question 35

Which of the following statements is true about the treatment of vancomycin-resistant infections?

A) Daptomycin (Cubicin) is administered daily by IV infusion.
B) Linezolid (Zyvox) is a combination of two drugs.
C) Quinupristin-dalfopristin (Synercid) is taken orally.
D) Vibativ (Telavancin) causes pain at the infusion site and an arthralgia-myalgia syndrome.