Deck 39: Posterior Pituitary Hormones and Drugs Affecting Uterine Muscle

Question 1

Hyperglycemia in diabetes mellitus is a direct result of:

A) GLUT1 transporter proteins not being able to form a glucose channel.
B) GLUT2 transporter proteins not being able to migrate to the plasma membrane.
C) GLUT3 transporter proteins not being able to form a glucose channel.
D) GLUT4 transporter proteins not being able to migrate to the plasma membrane.

Answer 1

GLUT4 transporter proteins not being able to migrate to the plasma membrane.

Question 2

In gestational diabetes,hormones produced by the _____ cause insulin resistance.

A) placenta
B) ovaries
C) uterus
D) pituitary gland

Answer 2

placenta

Question 3

Phase 2 insulin secretion begins when:

A) the blood sugar concentration rises to over 100 mg/dl 20 minutes after eating.
B) the blood sugar concentration remains at 85 mg/dl 20 minutes after eating.
C) the blood sugar concentration goes below 90 mg/dl 20 minutes after eating.
D) low glucose levels persist 20 minutes after eating.

Answer 3

the blood sugar concentration rises to over 100 mg/dl 20 minutes after eating.

Question 4

Which ion channel is essential for the release of insulin and amylin into the blood?

A) Sodium
B) Calcium
C) Potassium
D) Chloride

Question 5

The need for amputation for diabetics occurs because of:

A) an increase in the levels of stored glucose in the extremities.
B) a decrease in the immune response with high levels of insulin.
C) a decrease in the immune response with high levels of glucagon.
D) inadequate circulation to the extremities due to microvascular cahnges.

Question 6

Metabolic acidosis in diabetics occurs as a result of:

A) the breakdown of carbohydrates.
B) the breakdown of fats.
C) the breakdown of proteins.
D) the breakdown of nucleic acids.

Question 7

Insulin causes a majority of the blood glucose to be taken up in:

A) the brain.
B) the smooth muscle.
C) the skeletal muscle.
D) the cardiac muscle.

Question 8

What affect does diabetes mellitus have on urine output?

A) Urine output will increase due to a lack of antidiuretic hormone being produced.
B) Urine output will decrease due to osmotic pressure of excess glucose in the blood.
C) Urine output will increase due to excess glucose being filtered into the renal tubule.
D) Urine output will decrease due to increased production of antidiuretic hormone.

Question 9

Which one of the following receptors is not coupled to a G protein?

A) GIP receptor
B) GLP-1 receptor
C) Glucagon receptor
D) Insulin receptor

Question 10

Once potassium channels are closed by the production of ATP in the beta cell,what is needed for the release of insulin?

A) Depolarization causing sodium influx
B) Repolarization causing potassium efflux
C) Depolarization causing calcium influx
D) Hyperpolarization causing potassium efflux

Question 11

The autoimmune response associated with type 1 diabetes in which beta cells are destroyed is thought to be triggered by:

A) obesity.
B) a Coxsackie virus.
C) a staphylococcal infection.
D) the aging process.

Question 12

Cells that secrete GIP and GLP-1,which promote insulin secretion,are located in the:

A) small intestines.
B) large intestines.
C) pancreas.
D) liver.

Question 13

Which glucose receptor also functions as a carrier protein in cells of skeletal and heart muscles?

A) GLUT1
B) GLUT2
C) GLUT3
D) GLUT4

Question 14

What endocrine response occurs after a healthy person ingests a meal?

A) Glycogenolysis is increased.
B) Incretin secretion is reduced.
C) Stored glucagon is immediately released.
D) Stored insulin is immediately released.

Question 15

What effect will excess amounts of insulin in the blood have on the number of insulin receptors present?

A) Slight increase in the number of insulin receptors present
B) Decrease in the number of insulin receptors present
C) No change in the number of insulin receptors present
D) Dramatic increase in the number of insulin receptors present

Question 16

Glucagon is secreted:

A) when GIP and GLP-1 are released.
B) when the beta cells secrete insulin.
C) when blood glucose levels are below normal.
D) after consuming a large meal.

Question 17

A major factor in the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus is:

A) genetics.
B) insulin resistance.
C) obesity.
D) age.

Question 18

Medical professionals can determine how well a patient is managing his or her blood glucose levels by:

A) analyzing a tissue sample.
B) analyzing a urine sample.
C) analyzing hemoglobin.
D) analyzing the white blood cells.

Question 19

Which antidiabetic agents are considered hypoglycemics?

A) Insulins and alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
B) Biguanides and secretagogues
C) Insulin sensitizers and peptidase inhibitors
D) Insulins and secretagogues

Question 20

Diabetes mellitus is a syndrome that involves a problem with which hormone?

A) Insulin
B) Glucagon
C) Amylin
D) GIP

Question 21

Identify the accurate statement about insulin pens.

A) The pens increase accuracy in dose delivery.
B) Once a cartridge is loaded and opened, the loaded pen should be refrigerated.
C) The needle should be inserted at a 45 ^$\circ$ angle into pinched skin.
D) Insulin pens should be capped in order to avoid air being introduced in to the cartridge through the needle.

Question 22

Alex has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes and is prescribed Glucophage.He is invited to a party by his friend Ryan.Which of the following statements would be accurate for the given situation?

A) Alex should take a shot of insulin before going to the party.
B) Alex should take a shot of insulin right after having food at the party.
C) Alex should avoid alcohol use.
D) Alex is unlikely to develop symptoms of fatigue and respiratory or abdominal distress.

Question 23

Simone presents with symptoms of moderate renal impairment.Her physician diagnoses her condition to be a result of diabetes mellitus.She has been taking Diabinese for over a decade.Which of the following would be true of this situation?

A) The physician can prescribe a secretagogue to treat Simone.
B) The bioavailability of Diabinese will be reduced because of the renal impairment.
C) Diabinese should be substituted with a nonsulfonylurea drug.
D) Any drug prescribed to treat the renal impairment is unlikely to interact with Diabinese.

Question 24

Identify the most common adverse effect of insulin therapy.

A) Diarrhea
B) Blurred vision
C) Fainting
D) Convulsions

Question 25

Which of the following statements is true about the oral antidiabetic drugs that are approved for the treatment of type 2 DM?

A) These drugs are ineffective in maintaining glycemic control.
B) They can be used concurrently with other antidiabetic drugs, including insulin.
C) They are also used in the treatment of type 1 DM because some of these drugs cause the insulin secretion.
D) They are used in the treatment of ketoacidosis.

Question 26

Which of the following potentiates oral hypoglycemic drugs?

A) Sympathomimetics
B) Isoniazid
C) Rifampin
D) Sympatholytics

Question 27

What is the onset of action of glimepiride (Amaryl)?

A) 20 minutes
B) 1 hour
C) 2-4 hours
D) 4-6 hours

Question 28

Insulin sensitizers include _____.

A)meglitinides
B)sulfonylureas
C)secretagogues
D)thiazolidinediones

Question 29

Which of the following decreases insulin requirement (potentiates insulin)?

A) Alcohol
B) Smoking
C) Stress
D) Surgery

Question 30

Which of the following is a secretagogue?

A) Meglitinides
B) Metformin
C) Thiazolidinediones
D) Biguanides

Question 31

Hannah has type 1 diabetes.She is injected with insulin glargine (Lantus),which is administered at bedtime and released from the injection site at a consistent rate.Which of the following statements would be true of this scenario?

A) It can be substituted for short-acting insulin preparations.
B) It can be diluted or mixed with any other insulin preparation.
C) Her blood glucose levels will rise and fall in response to changing insulin levels.
D) She will have controlled insulin release during the next day.

Question 32

Ravi is taking Symlin.However,he missed a few meals and is feeling nauseous.Which of the following treatment statements is true?

A) The doses should continue even if Ravi skips his meals.
B) Continued use of the drug should reduce nausea.
C) The doses should be mixed with insulin as a single injection.
D) The doses should be increased until there is a perceivable reduction of the nauseous feeling.

Question 33

Which of the following statements is true about thiazolidinedione as an insulin sensitizer?

A) These drugs should be used in patients with congestive heart failure.
B) Troglitazone is available in the market for the management of diabetes.
C) Common adverse effects in this class include fluid retention and weight gain.
D) Rosiglitazone should be administered if ALT levels remain at more than three times the upper limit of normal on repeated assay.

Question 34

Identify the statement that is true about diabetes.

A) Therapy of type 2 diabetics does not include insulin.
B) Type 2 diabetics secrete unlimited amounts of insulin from the pancreas.
C) Patients' diets are adjusted to limit the intake of carbohydrates in both forms of diabetes.
D) Maintenance therapy of diabetes is directed at regulating the blood glucose level through drug administration only.

Question 35

Which of the following statements is true of amylin?

A) It accelerates gastric emptying and fuels glucagon secretion.
B) It is the hormone co-secreted by the pancreas beta cells with insulin.
C) It increases output from the liver (glycogenolysis) stimulated by glucagon.
D) Unlike type1 DM, amylin is deficient to absent consistent with insulin availability in type 2 DM.