Deck 8: Cellular Reproduction

Question 1

The structure labeled "c" in the following figure is called the

A) centromere.
B) centriole.
C) sister chromatid.
D) spindle.
E) non-sister chromatid.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

The figure below shows a cell in the mitotic stage of

A) anaphase.
B) interphase.
C) metaphase.
D) prophase.
E) telophase.

Answer 2

C

Question 3

When during the cell cycle are chromosomes visible?

A) only during interphase
B) only when they are being copied
C) during Mitosis
D) only during the G₁ phase
E) Chromosomes are always visible

Answer 3

C

Question 4

A cell is inhibited during the S phase of its cycle.It will not reproduce due to lack of

A) ATP availability.
B) centriole migration.
C) centromere formation.
D) DNA synthesis.
E) plasma membrane structure.

Question 5

Which of the following organelles would be abundant and in close proximity to the cell plate in a plant cell undergoing cytokinesis?

A) centrioles
B) Golgi apparatus
C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) lysosomes
E) central vacuole

Question 6

The figure below shows a cell in the mitotic stage of

A) anaphase.
B) interphase.
C) metaphase.
D) prophase.
E) telophase.

Question 7

Refer to the figure below.Differentiated cells,such as nerve cells,would be in which of the following stages of the cell cycle?

A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e

Question 8

The G₂ checkpoint prevents the cell cycle from continuing until

A) DNA is completely replicated.
B) damage to DNA can be repaired.
C) replicated DNA is separated.
D) organelles have been duplicated.
E) DNA is completely replicated AND damage to DNA can be repaired.

Question 9

Susan was examining a cell under the microscope and noticed the formation of a cell plate in the midline of the cell and the formation of nuclei at opposite poles of the cell.The cell under examination was most likely a(n)

A) animal cell in the M phase of the cell cycle.
B) dividing bacterial cell.
C) plant cell undergoing cytokinesis.
D) animal cell undergoing cytokinesis.
E) plant cell in the anaphase stage.

Question 10

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the events of the cell cycle?

A) DNA is duplicated during the G₁ and G₂ phases.
B) DNA replicates during cytokinesis.
C) The M phase is usually the longest phase.
D) Interphase consists of G₁, S, and G_2.
E) The cell stops growing in G₂ phase.

Question 11

Nuclear division is represented in the figure below by the letter

A) a.
B) b.
C) c.
D) d.
E) e.

Question 12

The figure below shows a cell in the mitotic stage of

A) anaphase.
B) interphase.
C) metaphase.
D) prophase.
E) telophase.

Question 13

DNA and histones form beadlike globules known as

A) nucleotides.
B) the chromatin network.
C) centrosomes.
D) nucleosomes.
E) mesosomes.

Question 14

Which following pair is correctly matched?

A) G₁ phase - DNA replication
B) G₂ phase - preparation for meiosis
C) S phase - DNA replication
D) M phase - cell growth
E) G₀ phases - cell growth

Question 15

Which of the following represents the phases of mitosis in their proper sequence?

A) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
B) interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
C) anaphase, interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
D) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
E) metaphase, interphase, cytokinesis, anaphase, telophase

Question 16

While Jeff was looking under the microscope at cells in different stages of mitosis he commented on the fact that many cells were in the same stage.If you were looking under the compound light microscope at an onion root tip,what stage would the majority of the cells be in the cell cycle?

A) anaphase
B) metaphase
C) cytokinesis
D) interphase
E) prophase

Question 17

A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal protein kinase for the M-phase checkpoint.Which of the following would likely be the immediate result of this mutation?

A) The cell would prematurely enter anaphase.
B) The cell would never leave metaphase.
C) The cell would never enter metaphase.
D) The cell would never enter prophase.
E) The cell would undergo normal mitosis, but fail to enter the next G₁.

Question 18

The structures labeled "d" in the following figure are called

A) centromeres.
B) centrioles.
C) sister chromatids.
D) spindles.
E) non-sister chromatids.

Question 19

Ben was looking at onion root tip cells under the microscope in Biology class.He saw one cell that had two nuclei within it.What stage of the cell cycle was this cell in?

A) anaphase
B) interphase
C) metaphase
D) prophase
E) telophase/cytokinesis

Question 20

All of the following statements are true about mitosis except

A) the cells arising from the process are genetically alike.
B) the process of mitosis is followed by cytokinesis.
C) spindle fibers are involved in the movement of chromosomes.
D) both sexually and asexually reproducing organisms utilize the process of mitosis.
E) the cells arising from the process contain only half of the necessary genetic material.

Question 21

Cells grown in a petri dish tend to divide until they form a thin layer covering the bottom of the dish.If cells are removed from the middle of the dish,the cells bordering the open space will begin dividing until they have filled the empty space.What does this experiment show?

A) When cells come into contact with other cells, they stop growing.
B) The controls on cell growth and division can be turned on and off.
C) Cell division can be regulated by factors outside of the cell.
D) Cells continue to grow as long as there is adequate space.
E) All answers are valid and correct.

Question 22

Cyclins function by

A) maintaining a constant level.
B) preventing the functioning of kinases.
C) combining with kinases.
D) causing apoptosis.
E) preventing apoptosis.

Question 23

Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were taken on a large number of cells from a growing fungus.The measure of DNA levels ranged from three to six picograms per nucleus.One nucleus had five picograms of DNA.What stage of the cell cycle was the nucleus in?

A) G₀
B) G₁
C) S
D) G₂
E) M

Question 24

Apoptosis

A) is a process that repairs damaged DNA.
B) occurs as telomeres increase in length.
C) can be used to remove damaged or malfunctioning cells.
D) increases the number of somatic cells.
E) increases the number of gamete cells.

Question 25

The term metastasis refers to the fact that cancer cells tend to

A) destroy.
B) divide.
C) reproduce.
D) shrink.
E) travel.

Question 26

Some of the drugs used in chemotherapy work by

A) increasing telomeres.
B) preventing spindle formation.
C) producing kinases.
D) inhibiting cytokinesis.
E) causing cells to divide quickly.

Question 27

Susan went to an oncologist because some cancerous cells had been detected within her breast tissue.Which of the following is NOT a warning signal for cancer?

A) The cells in the breast tissue lacked differentiation.
B) Some cells in the tissue had failed to acquire the specialized structure that the cell should have.
C) Some cells had abnormally large nuclei.
D) The cells had an abnormal number of chromosomes.
E) Some cells were found going through the cell cycle.

Question 28

Cells grown in a petri dish tend to divide until they form a thin layer covering the bottom of the dish.Which of the following statements explains why this occurs?

A) The cells become deficient in cyclin.
B) The petri dish inhibits the cells growth.
C) Cell division can be inhibited by the proximity of other cells of the same type, a process called contact inhibition.
D) Most cells grown in petri dishes have gone through apoptosis.
E) The cells have differentiated into more specialized cells.

Question 29

Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancer cells?

A) cells that have lost contact inhibition
B) cells with abnormal nuclei
C) cells which function normally for tissue they are in
D) cells that lack differentiation
E) cells that have uncontrolled cell division

Question 30

Place the stages of mitosis in the correct order.

A) prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
B) telophase, anaphase, metaphase, interphase
C) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
D) interphase, prophase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
E) interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis

Question 31

If there are twenty centromeres in a cell,how many chromosomes are there?

A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
E) 80

Question 32

Cancer occurs when

A) cells are unable to divide because of a mutation.
B) faulty spindle fibers are unable to pull chromatids apart.
C) apoptosis occurs.
D) both uncontrolled cell division and stimulation of apoptosis occurs.
E) the regulation of the cell cycle is lost and uncontrolled cell division occurs.

Question 33

___________ are a type of internal signal molecule used in controlling the cell cycle.

A) Kinases
B) Histones
C) Centromeres
D) Actins
E) Nucleosomes

Question 34

All of the following occur during the latter stages of mitotic prophase EXCEPT

A) the coiling of chromosomes.
B) the division of centromeres.
C) the formation of spindles.
D) the synthesis of DNA.
E) the degradation of the nuclear envelope.

Question 35

Cytokinesis usually,but not always,follows mitosis.If a cell undergoes mitosis and not cytokinesis,this would result in

A) a cell with a single large nucleus.
B) a cell with two or more nuclei.
C) cells with abnormally small nuclei.
D) feedback responses that prevent mitosis.
E) death of the cell line.

Question 36

What would occur in a cell if the production of cyclins halted during the cell cycle?

A) DNA would not be replicated in the S phase.
B) Organelles would not be duplicated in G₁.
C) The cell would not complete cytokinesis.
D) The cell would enter the G₀ phase.
E) The cell would remain in the G₂ phase and would not enter into mitosis.

Question 37

If a cell has 46 chromosomes at the beginning of mitosis,then at the end of anaphase there would be a total of

A) 23 chromatids.
B) 23 chromosomes.
C) 46 chromotids.
D) 46 chromosomes.
E) 92 chromosomes.

Question 38

All of the following occur during mitosis EXCEPT

A) the coiling of chromosomes.
B) the division of centromeres.
C) the formation of a spindle.
D) the synthesis of DNA.
E) the degradation of the nuclear envelope.

Question 39

Rick had a high incidence of cancer in his family.Four of the following five statements are preventative measures to avoid cancer.Which of the following is not correct?

A)Increase consumption of foods rich in vitamin A and C.
B)Avoid salt-cured,pickled,or smoked foods.
C)Increase consumption of vegetables from the cabbage family.
D)Avoid cigarette smoking,smokeless tobacco,and sunbathing.
E)Avoid a high fiber,low sodium diet.

Question 40

How do the daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare to their parent cell when it was in G₁ of the cell cycle?

A) The daughter cells have half of the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.
B) The daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
C) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
D) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and the same amount of DNA.
E) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA.

Question 41

Cancer is a disorder in which some cells have lost the ability to control their

A) size.
B) spindle fibers.
C) growth rate.
D) surface area.
E) volume.

Question 42

Unicellular organisms undergo mitotic division to

A) repair damaged cells.
B) increase the size of the organism.
C) produce new organisms.
D) increase the genetic variability of the population.
E) produce gametes.

Question 43

Plant cells and animal cells differ in cytokinesis because

A) plant cells need to build a cell wall while animal cells do not.
B) plant cells need to build a cell wall while animal cells built the extra cellular matrix.
C) animal cells need to build a cell membrane while plant cells do not.
D) animal cells are living while plant cells are not.
E) plant cells divide by mitosis while animal cells divide by meiosis.

Question 44

Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancer cells?

A) stimulate the growth of blood vessels
B) travel through the bloodstream to other parts of the body
C) exhibit contact inhibition
D) have abnormal chromosomes
E) produced by a mutation of a proto-oncogene

Question 45

Rebecca found out that she has a mass of dividing cells called a tumor in her ovaries.She has had tests and is returning to the doctor.What would the best results the doctor could tell her be?

A) It is a benign tumor.
B) The cells are cancerous and are in situ.
C) It is a malignant tumor.
D) It is malignant ovarian cancer.
E) The tumor has metastasized and invaded neighboring tissue.

Question 46

Some multicellular organisms,like the hydra,use asexual reproduction to produce a bud that leads to a new organism.This means that they are

A) using binary fission to create new cells.
B) using mitotic division to create new cells that become a new organism.
C) using meiosis to create new cells that become a new organism.
D) using mitotic division to gametes that give rise to a new organism.
E) using meiosis I only to give rise to new organisms.

Question 47

A proto-oncogene differs from a tumor suppressor gene because a proto-oncogene

A) may cause cancer if mutated, whereas a tumor suppressor gene cannot.
B) stimulates mitosis in a normal cell, whereas a tumor suppressor gene inhibits mitosis.
C) only activates enzymes in a cell that allow metastasis.
D) inhibits the cell cycle, whereas a tumor suppressor accelerates the cell cycle.
E) promotes meiosis, whereas a tumor suppressor gene promotes mitosis.

Question 48

If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicines,a drug that interferes with the functioning of the spindle fibers,at which stage will mitosis be arrested?

A) anaphase
B) prophase
C) telophase
D) metaphase
E) interphase

Question 49

Cytokinesis in plants occurs as _______________ and in animals as ________________.

A) actin fibers pull the membrane inward until the two sides touch; the Golgi apparatus produces membrane bound vesicles filled with materials to make the cell wall.
B) the Golgi apparatus produces membrane bound vesicles filled with materials to make the cell wall; actin fibers pull the membrane inward until the two sides touch.
C) the centrosome produces membrane bound vesicles filled with materials to make the cell wall; the Golgi apparatus produces actin fibers to pull the membrane inward until the two sides touch.
D) actin fibers interact to make the cell wall; the cleavage furrow pulls the membrane inward until the two sides touch.
E) the Golgi apparatus produces a cleavage furrow; actin fibers pull the membrane inward until the two sides touch.

Question 50

Cells that do not receive the correct signals to move from G₁ into S phase will enter G₀ and therefore will

A) immediately move into the mitotic phase.
B) never be able to undergo mitosis.
C) be able to produce gametes through meiosis.
D) stay in an undifferentiated state and become stem cells.
E) not undergo mitotic division unless it later receives the go ahead signal.

Question 51

Multicellular organisms undergo mitotic cell division to

A) produce new organisms.
B) produce gametes.
C) increase the variability of the population.
D) increase the size of the organism.
E) facilitate sexual reproduction.

Question 52

The mitotic spindle is composed of ______________ and grows from the _______________ toward the center of the cell.

A) microtubules; centrosome
B) asters; spindle equator
C) centrosomes; aster
D) microtubules; chromatid
E) microtubules; cleavage furrow

Question 53

The drug chloral hydrate prevents elongation of microtubules by preventing the addition of new subunits to the growing end.During which stage of mitosis would chloral hydrate be most harmful?

A) prophase
B) metaphase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
E) interphase

Question 54

The looping of DNA around histone proteins

A) produces the characteristic helix shape of the DNA.
B) allow the room for cellular machinery to reach all genes so they may be transcribed.
C) compacts the DNA allowing a large amount of DNA to fit into the cell.
D) prevents the DNA from becoming kinked and breaking.
E) occurs when the DNA is damaged and allow the cell to be destroyed through apoptosis.

Question 55

A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA nucleus.Those cells would have _____ picograms at the end of the S phase and _____ picograms at the end of G₂.

A) 8; 8
B) 8; 16
C) 16; 8
D) 16; 16
E) 12; 16

Question 56

The spindle serves two rolls in mitotic cell division.These are

A) to separate the sister chromatids and to elongate the cell.
B) to separate the non-sister chromatids and then the homologous chromosomes.
C) to separate the sister chromatids and then the non-sister chromatids.
D) to separate the sister chromatids and then form the cleavage furrow.
E) to separate the homologous chromosomes and then form the cleavage furrow.

Question 57

Movement of chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that

A) reduced cyclin concentrations.
B) increased cyclin concentrations.
C) prevented elongation of microtubules.
D) prevented shortening of microtubules.
E) prevented attachment of the microtubules to the kinetochore.

Question 58

Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle,and that show fluctuation in concentration during the cell cycle,are called

A) centromeres.
B) kinetochores.
C) centrioles.
D) proton pumps.
E) cyclins.

Question 59

The figure below shows a cell in the mitotic stage of

A) anaphase.
B) interphase.
C) metaphase.
D) prophase.
E) telophase.

Question 60

Apoptosis occurs when

A) a cell lyses due to an imbalance in water uptake.
B) white blood cells attack damaged cells and destroy them.
C) the controls over cell division are lost and a tumor forms as the mass of cells grow.
D) a cell with damaged DNA stops working and dies.
E) a damaged cell is programmed to fragment and then is phagocytized.

Question 61

What structure is formed by two sister chromatids being held together by a centromere?

A) chromosome
B) chromatin
C) histones
D) nucleosome
E) DNA

Question 62

If tumor cells have a faulty,non-functional proteinase,they will be unable to undergo which of the following processes?

A) mitosis
B) mutations
C) metastasis
D) apoptosis
E) angiogenesis

Question 63

In the absence of growth factors,the retinoblastoma (RB)protein binds a transcription activator called E2F,preventing the cell from entering S stage.A mutation in E2F occurs that causes RB to no longer bind it.This mutant E2F would be considered a(n)

A) oncogene.
B) proto-oncogene.
C) tumor supressor.
D) gain-of-function mutant.
E) growth factor.

Question 64

Proto-oncogenes function by preventing cells from dividing uncontrollably.

Question 65

A mutation that causes a gain of function in a tumor suppressor gene would not likely cause cancer because a tumor suppressor protein

A) normally promotes the cell cycle.
B) normally responds to growth factors.
C) activates a signal transduction pathway.
D) inactivates growth factors.
E) does not promote cell division.

Question 66

Many growth factors are classified as which of the following?

A) oncogenes
B) proto-oncogenes
C) tumor suppressors
D) mutant tumor suppressors
E) signal transduction pathway proteins

Question 67

Stem cells that contain telomerase can be found in adults.

Question 68

A tumor suppressor gene undergoes a mutation that causes it to lose its normal function.What would be the most likely result of this mutation?

A) The cell cycle halts and reverses back to the G₀ stage.
B) The cell cycle undergoes contact inhibition even when it is not surrounded by other cells.
C) The cell cycle accelerates.
D) The cell no longer responds to signals that cause it to stop dividing or undergo apoptosis.
E) The cell stops dividing permanently and will never re-enter the cell cycle.

Question 69

A translocation may lead to cancer if it

A) disrupts control of expression of genes that regulate the cell cycle.
B) deletes the telomere of the chromosome.
C) moves genes from one chromosome to another.
D) activates tumor suppressor genes.
E) affects both tumor suppressor and proto-oncogenes.

Question 70

A woman inherits a mutant BRCA1 allele from her mother.She has an increased risk of developing breast cancer because

A) every cell in the woman's body has a copy of the mutant BRCA1 allele.
B) she still has one normal allele of the BRCA1 gene that can make up for the loss of function in the mutant allele.
C) some of the cells in her body are already cancerous, meaning that no further mutations are needed for a tumor to form.
D) the normal BRCA1 allele is more likely to mutate than in an individual without a mutant BRCA1 allele.
E) a mutation in her normal BRCA1 allele may lead to cancer, whereas a normal individual would have to acquire two mutations (one in each allele) to develop cancer.

Question 71

Angiogenesis contributes to carcinogenesis because

A) it allows tumor cells to spread to other parts of the body.
B) it causes blood vessels to grow into the tumor.
C) it allows tumor cells to invade underlying tissues.
D) it causes additional mutations to occur in tumor cells.
E) it causes apoptosis in tumor cells.

Question 72

Cancer will occur if one copy of a mutant tumor suppressor gene is inherited.

Question 73

Cancer cells have abnormal chromosomes because they express telomerase when they should not.

Question 74

Embryonic cells and cancer cells are similar because

A) DNA polymerase is inactive.
B) telomerase is active.
C) telomerase is inactive.
D) RNA polymerase is inactive.
E) proto-oncogenes are inactive.

Question 75

A protein that promotes apoptosis would be considered a(n)

A) oncogene.
B) proto-oncogene.
C) tumor suppressor.
D) mutant tumor suppressor.
E) signal transduction pathway protein.

Question 76

Inheritance of mutant forms of some genes may lead to a predisposition to develop cancer.Which of the genes listed below has not been linked to hereditary forms of cancer?

A) BRCA-1
B) RB
C) RET
D) ras
E) DScam

Question 77

An oncogene is more likely to lead to cancer than a mutant tumor suppressor because

A) a gain of function mutation in an oncogene need only occur in one allele before it disrupts control of the cell cycle.
B) a loss of function mutation in an oncogene is sufficient to cause unregulated cell division.
C) the mutant oncogene may inactivate telomerase.
D) a gain of function mutation in a tumor suppressor gene can promote the cell cycle.
E) a gain of function mutation in an oncogene is more likely to cause the other allele to mutate.

Question 78

During which stage of the cell cycle do the chromosomes duplicate?

A) interphase: S
B) interphase: G1
C) interphase: G2
D) prophase
E) telophase

Question 79

The presence of which protein is required in order for chromatin to compact correctly within the nucleus?

A) histone
B) nucleosome
C) actin
D) chromatid
E) myosin

Question 80

A positive genetic test for telomerase indicates that

A) RB is inactive.
B) a cell is undergoing apoptosis.
C) proto-oncogenes have not yet mutated.
D) a cell is probably cancerous.
E) tumor suppressors are active.