Deck 3: Patient Safety, Communication, and Record Keeping

Question 1

Which of the following parameters should be monitored during ambulation?

A)skin color
B)breathing rate and effort
C)level of consciousness
D)all the above

Answer 1

D

Question 2

Which of the following terms describes the power potential behind electrical energy?

A)voltage
B)current
C)Ohms
D)resistance

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Where do most hospital fires initially start?

A)clinical laboratory
B)kitchen
C)electrical engineering post
D)patient's room

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Lifting heavy objects is best done with which of the following techniques?

A)straight spine, bent legs
B)straight spine, straight legs
C)bent spine, bent legs
D)bent spine, straight legs

Question 5

Which of the following conditions must be met for a fire to occur?
I)temperature high enough for combustion
II)presence of oxygen
III)presence of flammable material

A)I and II
B)II and III
C)I and III
D)I, II, and III

Question 6

Which of the following statements is false about patient ambulation?

A)Ambulation is necessary for normal body functioning.
B)Patients must be carefully monitored during ambulation.
C)Chairs or emergency supports must available during ambulation.
D)Patients with intravenous (IV) lines should not be ambulated.

Question 7

If 120 Volts are applied to a system with 1,000 Ohms of resistance, what is the current?

A)100 amps
B)100 Ohms
C)120 milliamps
D)120 amps

Question 8

Which of the following is/are a potential area of risk to patients receiving respiratory care?

A)movement or ambulation
B)electrical shock
C)fire hazards
D)all the above

Question 9

When a small, usually imperceptible current (usually less than 1 mA) is allowed to bypass the skin and follow a direct, low resistance pathway into the body, which of the following conditions exists?

A)macroshock hazard
B)grounding hazard
C)isolation hazard
D)microshock hazard

Question 10

What is the primary purpose of grounding all electrical equipment used in the hospital setting?

A)to prevent the dangerous build-up of voltage in the equipment
B)to make the equipment more secure and less likely to break down
C)to avoid excessive energy costs
D)to convert electrical power from DC to AC

Question 11

In electrically susceptible patients, ventricular fibrillation can occur with electrical currents as low as which of the following?

A)100 mA
B)100 A
C)100 $\mu$ A
D)10 $\mu$ A

Question 12

What is the primary factor determining the effect of an electrical shock?

A)current
B)temperature
C)resistance
D)voltage

Question 13

Which of the following organs is the most sensitive to the effects of electrical shock?

A)liver
B)heart
C)kidneys
D)lungs

Question 14

High amperage (6 amps or more) applied externally to the skin can cause which of the following?
I)sustained myocardial contraction
II)respiratory paralysis
III)skin burns

A)I and II
B)II and III
C)I, II, and III
D)I and III

Question 15

When a relatively high current (usually greater than 1 mA, or 1/1000 A) is applied externally to the skin, which of the following conditions exists?

A)macroshock hazard
B)grounding hazard
C)microshock hazard
D)isolation hazard

Question 16

In which of the following clinical situations is the normally high resistance of the skin bypassed?
I)in patients with external pacemaker wires
II)in patients with saline-filled catheters
III)in patients with intact, dry skin

A)II and III
B)I, II, and III
C)I and II
D)III

Question 17

Which of the following is used to report electrical current?

A)Ohms
B)voltage
C)amps
D)cycles

Question 18

Which of the following factors are most critical in determining when a patient can be ambulated?
I)willingness of patient
II)stability of vital signs
III)absence of severe pain

A)II and III
B)I and II
C)I, II, and III
D)I and III

Question 19

Which of the following is NOT true about fires in oxygen-enriched atmospheres?

A)They are more difficult to put out.
B)They burn more quickly.
C)They burn more intensely.
D)All of the above are true.

Question 20

Which of the following is/are key factor(s) determining the extent of harm caused by an electrical current?
I)duration for which the current is applied
II)path the current takes through the body
III)amount of current flowing through the body

A)I and II
B)II and III
C)I, II, and III
D)I and III

Question 21

Techniques to help ensure that understanding is taking place between the parties involved in an interaction include which of the following?
I)clarifying
II)paraphrasing
III)perception checking
IV)attending

A)I, II, and III
B)I and III
C)I, II, III, and IV
D)II, III, and IV

Question 22

The elements of a POMR entry would include which of the following?
I)patient's subjective complaints and concerns
II)objective data gathered by the health professional
III)assessment of the subjective and objective data
IV)plan to address the identified problem(s)

A)I, II, and III
B)I and III
C)I, II, III, and IV
D)I, III, and IV

Question 23

Maintaining eye contact, leaning toward the patient, and nodding your head are all good examples of what communication technique?

A)clarifying
B)empathizing
C)attending
D)reflecting

Question 24

A therapist who says "Please explain that to me again" to a patient during an interview is using what interpersonal communication technique?

A)clarifying
B)paraphrasing
C)perception checking
D)reflecting feelings

Question 25

A patient's response to an interview question is initially unclear. Which of the following responses on your part would be most appropriate?

A)"Please go on."
B)"You seem to be anxious."
C)"Please explain that to me again."
D)"Yes, I think I understand."

Question 26

What form of patient record is most designed to succinctly report data in a time-oriented format and to decrease time needed for documentation?

A)subjective, objective, assessment, and plan (SOAP) record
B)problem-oriented, medical record (POMR) record
C)flowsheet
D)progress note

Question 27

Which of the following is a method for communicating empathy to your patients?

A)use of touch
B)use of key words
C)use of eye contact
D)all the above

Question 28

Which of the following components of communication is a method used to transmit messages?

A)sender
B)channel
C)receiver
D)feedback

Question 29

How can the risk of fire because of static electrical discharge in the presence of oxygen be minimized?

A)Use only wool or polyester fabrics in the area of use.
B)Keep oxygen concentrations well below 21%.
C)Maintain high relative humidity in the area of use.
D)Keep oxygen in high-pressure storage cylinders.

Question 30

In the standard approach to hospital fires, the RACE plan has been suggested. What does the letter "C" stand for in this approach?

A)capture
B)contain
C)call for help
D)collapse

Question 31

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the use of oxygen?
I)Oxygen is flammable.II.Oxygen accelerates the rate of combustion.III.Increased oxygen concentration accelerates the rate of combustion.

A)I and II
B)II and III
C)I and III
D)I, II, and III

Question 32

Nonverbal communication includes all of the following except:

A)gesture
B)touch
C)discussion
D)space

Question 33

All of the following techniques can be used to improve one's effectiveness as a sender of messages except:

A)share information rather than telling
B)emphasize agreement over disagreement
C)eliminate threatening behavior
D)use effective nonverbal communication

Question 34

A therapist who says "You seem to be anxious about your surgery" to a patient just admitted for bypass surgery is using what interpersonal communication technique?

A)clarifying
B)paraphrasing
C)perception checking
D)reflecting feelings

Question 35

All of the following techniques can be used to improve one's listening skills except:

A)resist distractions
B)maintain composure and control emotions
C)keep an open mind (be objective)
D)judge the sender's delivery, not the content

Question 36

Which of the following strategies for conflict resolution represents a middle-ground strategy that combines assertiveness and cooperation?

A)avoiding
B)competing
C)compromising
D)accommodating

Question 37

Key barriers to effective interpersonal communication include all of the following except:

A)use of symbols or words with different meanings
B)value systems that are different or not accepted
C)similar perceptions of the problem
D)feelings of personal insecurity by one or both parties

Question 38

Which of the following factors can have an impact on the outcomes of therapeutic communication between patient and practitioner?
I)verbal and nonverbal components of expression
II)environmental factors (e.g., noise, privacy)III.values and beliefs of both patient and practitioner
IV)sensory and emotional factors (e.g., fear, pain)

A)I, II, and III
B)I and III
C)I, II, III, and IV
D)II, III, and IV

Question 39

Information about a patient's nearest kin, physician, and initial diagnosis can be found in which section of the medical record?

A)history and physical exam
B)admission sheet
C)physician's orders
D)consultation sheet

Question 40

Basic purposes of communication include all of the following except:

A)change others' values orientation
B)obtain or relay information
C)give instructions (teach)
D)persuade others to take action

Question 41

To determine any recent trends in a patient's pulse, respiration, or blood pressure, you would go to which section of the medical record?

A)progress sheet
B)nurses' notes
C)anesthesia record
D)vital signs sheet

Question 42

To determine the most recent medical status of a patient whom you are about to start treating, you would go to which section of the medical record?

A)progress sheet
B)nurses' notes
C)physician's orders
D)history and physical exam

Question 43

A pulmonary specialist has been called in by an internist to examine a patient and help make a diagnosis. Where in the patient's medical record would you look for the pulmonary specialist's report?

A)progress sheet
B)consultation sheet
C)physician's orders
D)history and physical exam

Question 44

If you make a mistake when charting a patient treatment, what should you do?

A)Make a new entry (called "correction") just below the mistake.
B)Erase the mistake and have your supervisor countersign it.
C)Draw a line through the mistake and write "error" above it.
D)Have your supervisor make the chart correction later.

Question 45

Which of the following are unacceptable practices in medical recordkeeping?
I)specifying when you will return to provide patient therapy
II)providing your own interpretation of a patient's symptoms
III)recording the patient's complaints and general behavior
IV)charting several separate tasks under a single chart entry

A)II and IV
B)I and II
C)I and IV
D)I, II, and IV

Question 46

Which of the following is an acceptable practice in medical recordkeeping?

A)leaving blank lines
B)erasing incorrect entries
C)using ditto marks
D)using standard abbreviations

Question 47

To find out what drugs or intravenous fluids a patient has received recently, you would go to which section of the medical record?

A)progress sheet
B)nurses' notes
C)physician's orders
D)medication record

Question 48

Which of the following is the correct way to sign a medical record entry?

A)CAW, LRCP, CRT
B)CAW, Respiratory Department
C)
C) White, LRCP, CRT
D)Cathy White, Therapist, Respiratory Department

Question 49

To confirm a physician's prescription for a drug that you need to give to a patient, you would go to which section of the medical record?

A)history and physical exam
B)laboratory sheet
C)physician's orders
D)medication record

Question 50

What is a time-based record of measurement during a specialized procedure such as mechanical ventilation?

A)consultation sheet
B)specialized flowsheet
C)progress notes
D)graphic sheet

Question 51

To determine the amount of urine excreted by a patient in the last 24 hours, you would go to which section of the medical record?

A)vital signs sheet
B)laboratory sheet
C)nurses' notes
D)intake and output (I & O) sheet

Question 52

To check on the results of a patient's recent blood work, you would go to which section of the medical record?

A)vital signs sheet
B)laboratory sheet
C)flowsheet
D)progress notes