Deck 15: Optimizing Food Production

Question 1

Which of the following statements of trophic levels is true?

A) There are far less consumers than producers.
B) Carnivores are primary consumers.
C) Herbivores are secondary consumers.
D) Decomposers are not consumed.
E) None of the above are true.

Answer 1

There are far less consumers than producers.

Question 2

Which of the following would be considered a producer?

A) grain
B) grass
C) phytoplankton
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Answer 2

all of the above

Question 3

Which of the following has the greatest amount of food energy available to it?

A) a grasshopper
B) a cat
C) a mouse
D) a dog
E) All of the above are equal.

Answer 3

a grasshopper

Question 4

What is the approximate percentage of grain production in the U.S that is used for feeding livestock?

A) 70 percent
B) 90 percent
C) 50 percent
D) 30 percent
E) 10 percent

Question 5

Which of the following foods would make you a quaternary consumer?

A) lentils
B) chicken
C) shark steak
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 6

Eating which of the following foods would make you a primary consumer?

A) lentils
B) chicken
C) shark steak
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 7

Humans are ________.

A) primary consumers
B) secondary consumers
C) tertiary consumers
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 8

Which of the following statements of trophic levels is not true?

A) It takes less energy to feed a creature at the top of the food chain.
B) An animal can be both a secondary and primary consumer.
C) Herbivores are consumers.
D) Decomposers can be primary consumers.
E) All of the above are true.

Question 9

All energy that is consumed in food is synthesized by ________.

A) producers
B) consumers
C) herbivores
D) decomposers
E) all of the above

Question 10

How are trophic structures related to the food chain?

A) They are the same.
B) Trophic structures are the food digesting organelle.
C) The food chain is a small, incomplete portion of the trophic structure.
D) The trophic structure is a small, incomplete portion of the food chain.
E) none of the above

Question 11

Anything that eats a producer is called a(n) ________.

A) predator
B) consumer
C) herbivore
D) decomposer
E) all of the above

Question 12

What is the source of all the carbon in trees and other plants?

A) carbohydrates
B) chlorophyll
C) carbon dioxide
D) oxygen
E) water

Question 13

Which of the following is not a consumer?

A) phytoplankton
B) zooplankton
C) carnivores
D) Only A and B are not consumers.

Question 14

Which of the following foods would make you a secondary consumer?

A) lentils
B) chicken
C) shark steak
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 15

Which of the following is the main producer in a marine environment?

A) zooplankton
B) grass
C) phytoplankton
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 16

What is the first step in food production?

A) photosynthesis
B) eating
C) sowing
D) plowing
E) decomposition

Question 17

What is acting as the energy storage media in photosynthesis?

A) carbohydrates
B) chlorophyll
C) carbon dioxide
D) oxygen
E) water

Question 18

Describe which level of the food chain the following statement illustrates: You are a strict vegetarian (no eggs, milk or fish).

A) primary consumer
B) carnivore
C) secondary consumer
D) quaternary consumer
E) decomposer

Question 19

Which of the following would not illustrate part of the trophic structure of an ecosystem?

A) plants absorbing carbon dioxide to make sugars
B) grasshoppers eating plants
C) racoons digging in your trash for your discarded food
D) skunks releasing a powerful scent to dissuade predators
E) all of the above

Question 20

What is the energy source that is used in photosynthesis?

A) solar radiation
B) geothermal energy
C) nuclear fission
D) internal combustion
E) all of the above

Question 21

Why is the number of Tyrannosaurus rex fossils found so much lower than the number of fossils found for other dinosaurs?

A) The bones of T-rex were particularly nutritious, hence most were eaten by scavengers prior to fossilization.
B) The T-rex was at the top of its food chain (a quaternary consumer), which means that its population was limited in size.
C) The T-rex species was one of the first to die out.
D) Very few T-rex fossils remain because of the destructive powers of the great asteroid or comet that evidence suggests collided with our planet 65 million years ago.

Question 22

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Plants cannot obtain nitrogen directly from the air.
B) The roots of a plant provide nitrogen required for plant growth.
C) Lightning striking the soil is the leading cause of water soluble nitrogen salts.
D) All of the above are true.
E) none of the above

Question 23

What are the major natural sources of potassium used by plants?

A) It is extracted from rocks.
B) It is formed by atmospheric reaction of potassium and oxygen during lightning strikes.
C) It is extracted from seawater by specialized bacteria in phytoplankton.
D) all of the above
E) only A and B

Question 24

Which of the following is the largest rock particle found in soil?

A) clay
B) silt
C) sand
D) humus
E) subsoil

Question 25

A low soil pH ________.

A) helps the soil retain nutrients
B) displaces negatively charged nutrients
C) displaces positively charged nutrients
D) promotes percolation

Question 26

Which of the following forms of nitrogen is most readily accessible to plants?

A) NO₃^-
B) NH₄⁺
C) N₂
D) N₂O
E) A and B

Question 27

Which element besides carbon, hydrogen and oxygen makes up the most mass of plants?

A) nitrogen
B) helium
C) molybdenum
D) iron
E) phosphorus

Question 28

Which of the following soil horizons contains the most organic matter?

A) substratum
B) subsoil
C) topsoil
D) bottom soil
E) humus

Question 29

Which of the following soil horizons is the closest to the surface?

A) substratum
B) subsoil
C) topsoil
D) bottom soil
E) humus

Question 30

Which of the following describes nitrogen fixation?

A) special bacteria converting nitrogen gas into ammonium ions
B) lightning causing nitrogen gas to react with oxygen gas and form nitrate ions
C) combustion of ammonia gas to produce nitrate ions
D) all of the above
E) A and B only

Question 31

What happens to most biochemical energy as it passes from one trophic level to the next?

A) Biochemical energy increases from one trophic level to the next.
B) Biochemical energy decreases from one trophic level to the next.
C) Biochemical energy does not change from one trophic level to the next.
D) Biochemical energy decreases from the producer level to the primary consumer level. All other level changes show an increase in biochemical energy.

Question 32

Which of the following is considered the smallest rock particle found in soil?

A) clay
B) silt
C) sand
D) humus
E) subsoil

Question 33

Which of the following soil horizons is the deepest?

A) substratum
B) subsoil
C) topsoil
D) bottom soil
E) humus

Question 34

Where do plants get most of the elements that make up their mass?

A) air and water
B) roots
C) soil
D) sunlight
E) none of the above

Question 35

Plants need nitrogen primarily so that they can build ________.

A) carbohydrates
B) lipids
C) amino acids
D) vitamins

Question 36

What are the major natural sources of phosphorus used by plants?

A) It is extracted from rocks as phosphate anion.
B) It is formed by atmospheric reaction of phosphorus and oxygen during lightning strikes.
C) It is converted from elemental phosphorus by specialized bacteria in the roots of plants.
D) all of the above
E) only A and B

Question 37

Thoroughly dried dead plant material is 44.4 percent oxygen by weight. How is this oxygen held in the plant so that it doesn't escape into the atmosphere?

A) This oxygen is held within cellulose micropores of the plant tissue.
B) This oxygen is found mostly as carbon dioxide, which is heavier than air.
C) This oxygen is not gaseous , but oxygen atoms bound to the cellulose structure.
D) Plants fix this oxygen during photosynthesis.

Question 38

What would happen to a forest without the action of decomposers?

A) Many plant and animal species would likely die out.
B) Nutrients would no longer be recycled.
C) Organic debris would accumulate and block sunlight from only the tallest of plant organisms.
D) all of the above

Question 39

Even though a plant will often have a large amount of stored calcium, how come periodic calcium deficiencies in the soil will lead to odd growth patterns?

A) Calcium stores in the plant are not transportable from one part to the other.
B) Calcium is a necessary neurotransmitter.
C) Plants continually excrete calcium into the soil and this leads to deficiencies.
D) The calcium is concentrated in the growing portions only.
E) none of the above

Question 40

Why would a predominately meat-based diet be a severe restriction on the possible size of the human population?

A) The hormones found in beef have a negative effect on human fertility.
B) Such a diet would shorten the average life span of humans.
C) There is not enough biochemical energy available at that trophic level to support a very large population.
D) The land area taken up by livestock would prevent people from finding new places to live.

Question 41

Which of the following is the source of organic components in soils?

A) clay
B) sand
C) silt
D) mineral particles
E) humus

Question 42

Which of the following soil horizons contains primarily clay?

A) substratum
B) subsoil
C) topsoil
D) bottom soil
E) humus

Question 43

Why don't plants grow well in nutrient-rich soils that contain a high percentage of clay?

A) The clay binds to the nutrients making them unavailable to the plants.
B) The clay is very compact providing few open spaces for water and oxygen.
C) The clay holds onto water for a long time to the point that root rot often occurs.
D) Clay contains a high proportion of iron ions, which are toxic to plants.

Question 44

Why do groundskeepers poke holes in football fields?

A) This helps the water to drain from the field when it rains.
B) It makes it easier for air to enter the soil.
C) To counteract the effect that the player's cleats have on the soil.
D) To prevent the grass from growing too thick.

Question 45

Pockets of open space in soil are necessary for plant health. If these pockets are too large, however, plant health suffers. Why?

A) Large open pockets of air fill with carbon dioxide, which lowers the pH of the soil to unhealthy levels.
B) When a root encounters a large pocket of air it is less able to absorb the nutrients it needs because it is no longer in contact with the soil.
C) When a large pocket of air collapses it hits the root damaging it and making it more susceptible to infection.
D) Water is not retained well by large open spaces in the soil, which means that plant nutrients are readily leached from the soil.

Question 46

Which of the following statements is true about water and soil?

A) Water will flow faster through denser soil.
B) Soil that drains water very slowly is better for plants.
C) Soil that drains very quickly is better for plants.
D) Leaching is a beneficial way to remove harmful side products.
E) none of the above

Question 47

Why might soil with a very low pH be more susceptible to leaching?

A) The acid ions exchange with the nutrient ions, which then are rinsed away.
B) The acid ions decompose the vitamins and minerals stored in the roots.
C) The base ions start to degrade the minerals and lead to insoluble ion salts.
D) The base ions decompose the vitamins and minerals stored in the roots and suck the valuable minerals into the water.
E) none of the above

Question 48

What do you expect the pH of a soil sample to be that has a large amount of humus in it?

A) low pH
B) high pH
C) negative pH
D) neutral pH
E) Humus has no effect on pH.

Question 49

In 1913, the German chemist Fritz Haber developed a process for producing ________.

A) sulfates
B) ammonia
C) mixed fertilizer
D) lime

Question 50

Which of the following is not one of the four primary components of fertile soil?

A) water
B) air
C) mineral particles
D) organic matter
E) All of the above are components.

Question 51

What do you expect the pH of a soil sample to be if the geology in the area was composed of a large amount of calcium carbonate (CaCO₃)?

A) low pH
B) high pH
C) negative pH
D) neutral pH
E) Calcium carbonate has no effect on pH.

Question 52

Which of the following soil horizons would be structurally the most similar to bedrock?

A) substratum
B) subsoil
C) topsoil
D) bottom soil
E) humus

Question 53

How does humus contribute to the acidity of soil?

A) The humus contains a large proportion of amino acids that get released into the soil.
B) The humus binds with hydroxide ions, which has the effect of increasing the hydronium ion concentration.
C) In decomposing, the humus releases carbon dioxide which reacts with moisture to form carbonic acid.
D) Humus contains many alkaloids that cause the pH of the soil to rise.

Question 54

Which of the following statements are true?

A) The holes between soil particles hold valuable nutrients and air.
B) Porous soil is not beneficial to plants.
C) Plants grow better in dense soils.
D) Soil with tiny particles holds more water than loose soil.
E) All of the above are true.

Question 55

Why do soils that contain a high percentage of clay retain plant nutrients so well?

A) The ions of clay tend to be positively charged while nutrients tend to be negatively charged.
B) Water cannot penetrate through clay very well, which means that nutrients are not readily washed away.
C) Clay contains many magnetic particles, which have the effect of holding onto the nutrients.
D) Because of a lack of water, the nutrients are not dissolved, which means they adhere as a solid to the clay particles.

Question 56

Which of the following is the cause of soil losing its fertility?

A) plants extract nutrients from the soil
B) leaching extracts nutrients from the soil
C) not adding enough fertilizer
D) all of the above
E) only A and B

Question 57

The use of tractors and other heavy farm machinery compacts soil. How might this compacting affect soil fertility?

A) The soil fertility is harmed because the weight of the heavy machinery squeezes out the water.
B) The increased pressure causes fertilizer molecules to react with one another, which has the effect of harming soil fertility.
C) Once compacted the soil is not able to hold water and air, which harms the fertility.
D) The weight of the heavy machinery kills decomposers, such as worms, which has the effect of harming soil fertility.

Question 58

In what ways are the roots of a plant like an ion-exchanger used to purify hard water?

A) The roots release ions, which exchange with the mineral ions in the soil.
B) The plant roots purify water.
C) The plant roots trap ions in the water and store them until recharged.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 59

Which of the following is the easiest to remove from soil by leaching?

A) negative ions
B) positive ions
C) neutral compounds
D) all salts are removed equally
E) none of the above

Question 60

Which of the following soil horizons contains an equal mixture of clay, sand and silt?

A) substratum
B) subsoil
C) topsoil
D) bottom soil
E) humus

Question 61

Why do the leaves of plants deficient in nitrogen turn yellow?

A) It signals farmers to provide additional fertilizer.
B) Plants deficient in nitrogen have a hard time producing chlorophyll.
C) Without nitrogen, the fluids in the plant turn acidic.
D) The nitrogen protects the plant from the sun's harmful ultraviolet rays.

Question 62

What potentially negative aspects of chlorinated hydrocarbons like DDT make them potentially detrimental to the environment?

A) They are not water soluble.
B) They do not degrade rapidly.
C) They accumulate in fat.
D) all of the above
E) only A and B

Question 63

Which of the following is a straight fertilizer?

A) NH₃
B) NaNO₃
C) NH₄NO₂
D) All of the above are straight fertilizers.
E) These are all synthetic fertilizers.

Question 64

Shown below are the N-P-K ratings for three fertilizer additives: sawdust, fish meal, and wood ashes. Using what you know about the chemical composition of these substances, assign each to its most likely n-p-k rating. 5-3-3 0-1.5-8 0.2-0-0.2

A) sawdust: 5-3-3; fish meal: 0-1.5-8; wood ashes: 0.2-0-0.2
B) sawdust: 0-1.5-8; fish meal: 0.2-0-0.2; wood ashes: 5-3-3
C) sawdust: 0.2-0-0.2; fish meal: 5-3-3; wood ashes: 0-1.5-8
D) sawdust: 0.2-0-0.2; fish meal: 0-1.5-8; wood ashes: 5-3-3

Question 65

Nicotine solutions are available from lawn and garden stores as an insecticide. Why must gardeners handle this product with extreme care?

A) These solutions are also toxic to plants, thus the gardeners must be careful not to apply too much.
B) These solutions are as toxic to humans as they are to insects.
C) These solutions are very effective, but also very expensive.
D) In some brands, the nicotine solutions also serves as a carrier for radioactive isotopes.

Question 66

Which of the following is a complete fertilizer?

A) NH₃
B) KNO₃ with NH₄NO₃
C) NH₄NO₃ with K₃PO₄
D) All of the above are complete fertilizers.
E) A and B only

Question 67

Earthworms are repelled by the high concentrations of nutrients in soils treated with synthetic fertilizers. How might this affect the soil structure?

A) The soil becomes less fertilized by bird droppings.
B) The soil becomes more compact.
C) As the worms leave, insect larvae take over the role of making the soil porous.
D) Decaying dead worms are an important component of soil compost, which is why soil without many worms is less fertile.

Question 68

Which of the following is not a major fertilizer that has been obtained primarily from native sources (i.e., not synthesized by humans)?

A) ammonia gas
B) saltpeter
C) compost
D) All of the above are from natural sources (some more natural than others).
E) none of the above

Question 69

What feature, besides their ability to kill insects, makes chlorinated hydrocarbons like DDT attractive as an insecticide?

A) They are not water soluble.
B) They do not degrade rapidly.
C) They accumulate in fat.
D) all of the above
E) only A and B

Question 70

Which is better for a plant: an ammonium ion from compost or an ammonium ion from synthetic fertilizer?

A) from compost
B) from synthetic fertilizer
C) It depends upon weather conditions where moist environments tend to favor naturally occurring ammonium ions.
D) An ammonium ion is an ammonium ion no matter where it is from.

Question 71

Why does a farmed field lose its fertility while a wild pasture does not?

A) Harvesting removes the minerals and organic matter stored in the plants from the ecosystem.
B) Wild pastures are continually fertilized by nitrogen rich rain formed in thunderstorms.
C) Nature is more balanced than agriculture.
D) Agricultural plants require more water than natural plants and this leads to more leaching.
E) all of the above

Question 72

DDT has a strong affinity for fat tissue because, like fat tissue, DDT is ________.

A) polar and so the two are attracted to each other
B) nonpolar and equally repelled by water
C) nonpolar and so the two are attracted to each other
D) nonpolar and so the two are held by induced dipole-induced dipole attractions

Question 73

What happens to ammonium ions in alkaline soil, and how might this reaction favor the loss of nitrogen from the soil?

A) Ammonium ions turn into ammonia, which is a gas that can escape into the atmosphere.
B) Ammonium ions turn into nitrate ions, which are lost through water runoff.
C) Ammonium ions turn into nitrogen gas, which escapes back into the atmosphere.
D) In alkaline soils, ammonium ions have a greater tendency to bind with inorganic particles thereby becoming unavailable for plants.

Question 74

What is the difference between synthetic and natural fertilizers?

A) There is no difference chemically, just that synthetics are mixed in different proportions.
B) Synthetics come from artificial processes such as the Haber process.
C) Natural fertilizers are all mined.
D) Natural fertilizers are all obtained from decay of organic matter.
E) none of the above

Question 75

What is the main product of the Haber process?

A) NH₃
B) compost
C) NH₄NO₃
D) N₂
E) H₂

Question 76

How might periodic floods from rainstorms benefit irrigated cropland?

A) by washing away weeds and ground burrowing insects
B) by saturating surface soil with rainwater
C) by removing the top layer of soil and exposing the nutrient-rich soil beneath
D) by removing much of the accumulated salt deposits

Question 77

When only synthetic fertilizers are used on a crop, the quantity used needs to be increased over time because ________.

A) they are washed away by seasonal rains, but residual fertilizers remain
B) organisms in the soil develop a resistance to these fertilizers
C) more and more genetically engineered crops are being planted
D) synthetic fertilizers provide no organic bulk

Question 78

Which of the following is a straight fertilizer?

A) NH₃
B) KNO₃
C) (NH₄)₃PO₄
D) All of the above are straight fertilizers.
E) These are all synthetic fertilizers.

Question 79

The N-P-K system is used to describe ________.

A) the relative amounts of nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium in mixed fertilizers
B) the identity of a straight fertilizer
C) the climate zone in which a fertilizer works best
D) the pounds of nickel, potassium, and krypton in a bag of mixed fertilizer
E) B and C

Question 80

How does inert organic bulk of compost help to maintain fertile soil conditions?

A) The organic bulk provides for open spaces into which the roots may grow.
B) The organic bulk adds nutrients to the soil.
C) The organic bulk provides open spaces for water and air.
D) The organic bulk decomposes into a pulp rich in nitrogen.