Deck 42: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine

Question 1

Which of the following conditions could lead to a blue-green colored urine?

A) Bleeding in the urinary tract
B) Liver disorder
C) Pseudomonas infection
D) Diabetes

Answer 1

Pseudomonas infection

Question 2

A small amount of which of the following is always present in normal urine?

A) Bilirubin
B) Glucose
C) Urobilinogen
D) Leukocyte esterase

Answer 2

Urobilinogen

Question 3

A CLIA-waived urine pregnancy test result can detect hCG as early as

A) 24 hours of conception.
B) 72 hours of conception.
C) 1 week after implantation, or 4 to 5 days before a missed menstrual period.
D) 1 week after a missed menstrual period.

Answer 3

1 week after implantation, or 4 to 5 days before a missed menstrual period.

Question 4

A cloudy urine specimen may be the result of which of the following?

A) Glycosuria
B) Ketones
C) Lipids
D) Crystals

Question 5

Which of the following are tubular structures found in the urine and composed mainly of mucoprotein produced in the kidney?

A) Casts
B) Bacteria
C) Yeasts
D) Metabolites

Question 6

When instructing a female patient in how to obtain a clean-catch, midstream urine specimen, you should tell her to use how many antiseptic towelettes?

A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four

Question 7

If a urine specimen cannot be analyzed within 1 hour, the best course of action is to

A) discard the specimen and order a recollection.
B) refrigerate the specimen.
C) add a chemical preservative.
D) let it remain at room temperature.

Question 8

A medical assistant instructs a patient to collect a first morning specimen for which of the following tests?

A) Pregnancy testing
B) Culture for bacteriuria
C) Quantitative protein determination
D) Routine urinalysis

Question 9

The specific gravity of a urine specimen reads 1.035. This value is considered

A) abnormally high.
B) abnormally low.
C) normal.
D) None of the above

Question 10

You open a urine sample for testing and immediately detect a fruity odor. Which test result do you expect to be elevated using a urine dipstick?

A) Protein
B) Urobilinogen
C) Ketones
D) Bilirubin

Question 11

Casts in a urine specimen develop in what part of the urinary tract?

A) Urethra
B) Kidney
C) Bladder
D) Ureters

Question 12

In the microscopic observation of urine sediment, yeast most resembles

A) bacteria.
B) red blood cells.
C) mucous threads.
D) calcium oxalate crystals.

Question 13

Which statement is true about the pH of urine?

A) The average pH of freshly voided urine is 9.
B) The urinary pH varies with the diet.
C) The urine pH is alkaline if the patient has bacteriuria.
D) A urine pH below 7 indicates alkalinity.

Question 14

One of the first detectable signs of liver disease is

A) bilirubinuria.
B) hematuria.
C) proteinuria.
D) ketonuria.

Question 15

A urine specimen is tested and shown to have a pH of 8.0. This value is

A) abnormally low.
B) abnormally high.
C) midrange normal.
D) normal.

Question 16

Urine suspected of having high levels of which substance should be stored in a dark place before testing?

A) Sugar
B) Red blood cells
C) Bacteria
D) Bilirubin

Question 17

Using a urine dipstick test on a urine specimen from a female with a UTI, which tests will most likely be positive?

A) Blood and glucose
B) Nitrite and leukocyte esterase
C) Glucose and urobilinogen
D) Ketone and nitrite

Question 18

One of the first detectable signs of renal disease is

A) hematuria.
B) pyuria.
C) proteinuria.
D) myoglobinuria.

Question 19

A 24-hour urine sample is ordered to determine which of the following?

A) Ketone levels
B) Creatinine clearance rates
C) Proteinuria
D) Anuria

Question 20

A child whose urine has a mousy smell most likely would be diagnosed with

A) diabetes.
B) urinary tract infection.
C) PKU.
D) renal failure.

Question 21

The study of poisonous substances and their effects on the body.

A) Hematology
B) Chemistry
C) Urology
D) Toxicology

Question 22

The pigment that is responsible for the color of urine is

A) bilirubin.
B) urochrome.
C) hemoglobin.
D) nitrites.

Question 23

Which of the following substances when found in urine may indicate kidney damage?

A) Glucose
B) Electrolytes
C) Protein
D) Urea

Question 24

Which of the following urinary casts is often present when a person has glomerulonephritis?

A) Hyaline casts
B) White blood cell casts
C) Red blood cell casts
D) Granular casts

Question 25

Analyte that is the end-products of fat metabolism and is detected in the urine samples of patients with uncontrolled diabetes.

A) Glucose
B) Bilirubin
C) Ketone
D) Urobilinogen

Question 26

You are examining a patient's urinalysis report. Which of the following factors is normal?

A) Specific gravity: 1.045
B) Color: light amber
C) Turbidity: present
D) Glucose: positive

Question 27

A turbid urine sample means that the specimen is

A) contaminated.
B) high in ketones.
C) high in glucose.
D) cloudy.

Question 28

A urine sample that can be collected at any given time is called a

A) random sample.
B) 2-hour PP.
C) clean-catch sample.
D) 24-hour sample.

Question 29

Which cells listed below are usually oval and may show budding? They are common in urine of diabetic patients.

A) Yeast cells
B) Squamous epithelial cells
C) Renal tubular cells
D) White blood cells

Question 30

What is the most common test method used for urine pregnancy testing?

A) Clinitest
B) Lateral flow immunoassay
C) CLIA-waved lateral flow urine test
D) None of the above

Question 31

The sugar most commonly found in urine is

A) fructose.
B) maltose.
C) glucose.
D) lactose.

Question 32

Which of the following urine specimens are used in diabetes screening and for home diabetes testing programs?

A) Random specimens
B) First morning specimens
C) 2-hour postprandial urine specimens
D) 24-hour urine specimens

Question 33

The specific gravity of most urine samples falls between

A) 1.000 and 1.010.
B) 1.010 and 1.025.
C) 1.005 and 1.030.
D) 1.030 and 1.050.

Question 34

Polyuria is common in which of the following clinical situations?

A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Dehydration
C) Renal failure
D) Urinary tract infections

Question 35

Abnormal urine color may be related to which of the following?

A) Diet
B) Medication
C) Disease
D) All of the above

Question 36

An ammonia or putrid smell in the urine can be caused by which of the following?

A) Uncontrolled diabetes
B) Infection
C) A child with phenylketonuria
D) Food such as asparagus or garlic

Question 37

Which of the following is a common finding in cystitis and in individuals passing kidney stones?

A) Hematuria
B) Hemoglobinuria
C) Myoglobinuria
D) None of the above

Question 38

A urine reagent dipstick is highly sensitive to

A) hemoglobin.
B) immunoglobulin.
C) urinary albumin.
D) mucoproteins.

Question 39

What structure in the nephron filters the blood to create filtrate?

A) Glomerulus
B) Bowman's capsule
C) Loop of Henle
D) Distal convoluted tubule

Question 40

Which of the following is not a recommendation from the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute for urine specimens?

A) Volume should be 12 mL.
B) Specimen should not be centrifuged.
C) A standardized slide should be used to view the sediment.
D) A consistent reporting format should be used.

Question 41

The average person produces approximately 3 L of urine each day.

Question 42

Safety precautions must be taken with the Clinitest method of testing for glycosuria because the chemical reaction causes the test tube to become very hot.

Question 43

The most accurate method of testing urine in patients with diabetes requires a second-voided specimen.

Question 44

Of the many sugars that can be present in the urine, only glucose and galactose signify a pathologic condition.

Question 45

In general, artifacts in urine sediment, such as mucous threads and starch granules, are quantified and reported.

Question 46

Reagent strip urine testing must be performed on a fresh specimen within 1 hour of collection.

Question 47

For the most accurate results, urine specimens should be kept refrigerated and processed within 2 hours of collection.

Question 48

Normally the medical assistant documents the presence of foam on a urine specimen.

Question 49

The Clinitest is performed to detect sugars in the urine.

Question 50

Although urine tests are used for drug screening, the most accurate examination is performed on blood samples.

Question 51

Hematuria is the presence of intact red blood cells in urine.

Question 52

Crystal deposits are detected in urine after it has cooled.

Question 53

Ovulation testing measures the level of hCG in the bloodstream.

Question 54

When urine is fresh and warm, trichomonas organisms may be motile and appear to be darting about rapidly when the specimen is examined under a microscope.

Question 55

Quality-control methods for microscopic examination of urine require a minimum of 20 mL of urine that has been centrifuged for 10 minutes.

Question 56

The presence of casts in urine may be caused by strenuous exercise.

Question 57

Ketones may not be present in a urine sample that is at room temperature.