Deck 26: Transcription and Rna Processing

Question 1

Matching
Choose the correct answer from the list.Not all the answers will be used.

The expressed sequences of eukaryotic pre-mRNAs are known as ______.

A) Rho (ρ)
B) introns
C) sigma (σ)
D) sense
E) operons
F) structural
G) Pribnow
H) promoters
I) antisense
J) exons
K) nucleolus
L) TATA
M) Sense
N) AAAA (poly A)
O) Ribosome

Answer 1

exons

Question 2

Most ______ have well defined 3' ends terminating in poly(A)tails of ~ 250 nt.

A)prokaryotic mRNAs
B)eukaryotic mRNAs
C)prokaryotic rRNAs
D)eukaryotic rRNAs
E)all of the above

Answer 2

eukaryotic mRNAs

Question 3

Matching
Choose the correct answer from the list.Not all the answers will be used.

Eukaryotic rRNA genes are transcribed and processed in the ______.

A) Rho (ρ)
B) introns
C) sigma (σ)
D) sense
E) operons
F) structural
G) Pribnow
H) promoters
I) antisense
J) exons
K) nucleolus
L) TATA
M) Sense
N) AAAA (poly A)
O) Ribosome

Answer 3

nucleolus

Question 4

In prokaryotes,the _____ factor recognizes base sequences in the _____ which facilitates RNA polymerase binding and initiates RNA synthesis.

A)" $\sigma$ ;promoter"
B)"regulatory;enhancer"
C)" $\sigma$ ;enhancer"
D)"regulatory;promoter"
E)"omega;promoter"

Question 5

Transcriptional activators that can have variable positions and orientations are called

A)core promoter elements.
B)upstream promoter elements.
C)CpG islands.
D)enhancers.
E)Inr elements.

Question 6

Matching
Choose the correct answer from the list.Not all the answers will be used.

The DNA strand that serves as a template during transcription is known as the ______ or noncoding strand.

A) Rho (ρ)
B) introns
C) sigma (σ)
D) sense
E) operons
F) structural
G) Pribnow
H) promoters
I) antisense
J) exons
K) nucleolus
L) TATA
M) Sense
N) AAAA (poly A)
O) Ribosome

Question 7

Matching
Choose the correct answer from the list.Not all the answers will be used.

Prokaryotic contain nucleotide sequences know as _____ which contain related genes with related functions.

A) Rho (ρ)
B) introns
C) sigma (σ)
D) sense
E) operons
F) structural
G) Pribnow
H) promoters
I) antisense
J) exons
K) nucleolus
L) TATA
M) Sense
N) AAAA (poly A)
O) Ribosome

Question 8

Matching
Choose the correct answer from the list.Not all the answers will be used.

Termination of bacterial transcription requires the ______ factor.

A) Rho (ρ)
B) introns
C) sigma (σ)
D) sense
E) operons
F) structural
G) Pribnow
H) promoters
I) antisense
J) exons
K) nucleolus
L) TATA
M) Sense
N) AAAA (poly A)
O) Ribosome

Question 9

The precursors of 5S rRNA,the tRNAs,and a variety of other small nuclear and cytosolic RNAs are synthesized by ______.
(I)RNA polymerase I.
(II)RNA polymerase II.
(III)RNA polymerase III.

A)I or III
B)I or II
C)I only
D)II only
E)III only

Question 10

Matching
Choose the correct answer from the list.Not all the answers will be used.

An AT-rich region found in eukaryotic promoters is called the ______ box.

A) Rho (ρ)
B) introns
C) sigma (σ)
D) sense
E) operons
F) structural
G) Pribnow
H) promoters
I) antisense
J) exons
K) nucleolus
L) TATA
M) Sense
N) AAAA (poly A)
O) Ribosome

Question 11

The precursors of most eukaryotic rRNAs are synthesized by
(I)RNA polymerase I.
(II)RNA polymerase II.
(III)RNA polymerase III.

A)I or III
B)I or II
C)I only
D)II only
E)III only

Question 12

All cellular RNAs are transcribed from

A)DNA templates.
B)RNA templates.
C)either DNA or RNA templates,but not both in the same organism.
D)a combination of DNA and RNA templates.
E)none of the above

Question 13

The fact that some eukaryotic rRNAs are self-splicing indicates that

A)RNA structures are highly variable.
B)RNAs can contain modified bases.
C)eukaryotes have multiple RNA polymerases.
D)RNA can act as an enzyme or catalyst.
E)None of the above is correct.

Question 14

Matching
Choose the correct answer from the list.Not all the answers will be used.

Eukaryotic RNA molecules are altered by removal of intervening sequences called ______.

A) Rho (ρ)
B) introns
C) sigma (σ)
D) sense
E) operons
F) structural
G) Pribnow
H) promoters
I) antisense
J) exons
K) nucleolus
L) TATA
M) Sense
N) AAAA (poly A)
O) Ribosome

Question 15

The precursors of eukaryotic mRNAs are synthesized by ______.
(I)RNA polymerase I.
(II)RNA polymerase II.
(III)RNA polymerase III.

A)I or III
B)I or II
C)I only
D)II only
E)III only

Question 16

Matching
Choose the correct answer from the list.Not all the answers will be used.

In eukaryotes,RNA polymerase does not include a removable ______ factor.

A) Rho (ρ)
B) introns
C) sigma (σ)
D) sense
E) operons
F) structural
G) Pribnow
H) promoters
I) antisense
J) exons
K) nucleolus
L) TATA
M) Sense
N) AAAA (poly A)
O) Ribosome

Question 17

Imagine that a new drug is proposed which is hypothesized to selectively bind the transcription factor TBP.Which of the following would be affected?
(I)RNA polymerase I
(II)RNA polymerase II
(III)RNA polymerase III
(IV)E.coli RNA polymerase

A)I,II,III,IV
B)I,II,III
C)I only
D)II only
E)IV only

Question 18

Matching
Choose the correct answer from the list.Not all the answers will be used.

CpG islands function analogously to prokaryotic ______.

A) Rho (ρ)
B) introns
C) sigma (σ)
D) sense
E) operons
F) structural
G) Pribnow
H) promoters
I) antisense
J) exons
K) nucleolus
L) TATA
M) Sense
N) AAAA (poly A)
O) Ribosome

Question 19

The term rRNA refers to ______ RNA.

A)ribosomal
B)retroviral
C)recombinant
D)rho factor

Question 20

Matching
Choose the correct answer from the list.Not all the answers will be used.

Protein-coding genes are also known as ______ genes.

A) Rho (ρ)
B) introns
C) sigma (σ)
D) sense
E) operons
F) structural
G) Pribnow
H) promoters
I) antisense
J) exons
K) nucleolus
L) TATA
M) Sense
N) AAAA (poly A)
O) Ribosome

Question 21

Which of the following statements best describes the role of $\sigma$ factors in bacterial gene expression?

A)" $\sigma$ factors determine which RNA polymerase is used during transcription."
B)" $\sigma$ factors mediate the excision of intronic sequences."
C)" $\sigma$ factors can be used to express certain genes necessary based on cell type."
D)" $\sigma$ factors bind to the TATA box and initiate transcription."
E)"none of the above"

Question 22

The phosphorylation of the CTD of RNA polymerase II is important for which phase of transcription?

A)initial binding of the promoter
B)conversion from the pre-initiation (closed)complex to the initiation (open)complex
C)progression from initiation to elongation
D)termination of transcription
E)none of the above

Question 23

E.coli RNA polymerase contains multiple subunits,which of the following combinations would result in promoter recognition but no RNA synthesis?

A)" $\sigma$ and β"
B)" $\alpha$ and $\beta$ "
C)" $\sigma$ ,β,β' "
D)" $\alpha$ ,β,β' "
E)" ω,β, $\alpha$ "

Question 24

Which of the following types of RNA undergo posttranscriptional modifications?

A)mRNA
B)rRNA
C)tRNA
D)all of the above
E)none of the above

Question 25

In eukaryotes,mRNAs are synthesized in the cell ______,whereas most translation occurs in the ______.

A)nucleus,nucleosome.
B)nucleus,cytosol.
C)cytosol,nucleosome.
D)cytosol,nucleus.
E)nucleosome,cytosol.

Question 26

How does the preinitiation complex begin to form at a TATA box-containing promoter?

A)RNAP binds to the sigma factor.
B)RNAP binds to the initiator (Inr)element.
C)TATA-binding protein binds to the TATA box.
D)RNAP binds to the Rho factor.
E)none of the above.

Question 27

Why is TBP referred to as a universal transcription factor?
(I)TBP is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms.
(II)TBP catalyzes the initiation of all RNA polymersase in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
(III)TBP is required for initiation by RNAP I,RNAP II,and RNAP III.

A)I,II,III
B)I,II
C)I,III
D)II,III
E)III only

Question 28

Splicing
(I)occurs in the cytosol.
(II)results from 2' -OH on the exon attack on the 5' splice site.
(III)is completed when the 3' -OH on the newly cut exon attacks the 5'-terminal phosphate on the next exon.

A)I,II
B)I,III
C)I only
D)II only
E)III only

Question 29

Which of the following describes the cap nucleotide linkage on a eukaryotic mRNA?
(I)5'→5' linkage
(II)5'→3' linkage
(III)3'→5' linkage
(IV)3'→3' linkage

A)I or II
B)I or III
C)I only
D)II only
E)II or IV

Question 30

The processing of pre-rRNAs includes ______.
(I)nucleolytic cleavage.
(II)snoRNA-assisted methylation.
(III)snRNP-assisted methylation.

A)I,II
B)I,III
C)II,III
D)I,II,III
E)III only

Question 31

In eukaryotes all three RNA polymerases recognize

A)the promoter sequence bound by $\sigma$ factor.
B)a single promoter sequence named TF II D.
C)class I promoters.
D)promoters with TATA boxes.
E)none of the above.

Question 32

The Pribnow box is a _____ sequence that is _____ and is located at approximately ____ position of the promoter.

A)conserved;AT rich;-10
B)dispersive;AT rich;-10
C)conserved;GC rich;-35
D)dispersive;GC rich;-35
E)conserved;variable in sequence;0

Question 33

Which of the following types of splicing RNAs uses a free nucleotide to perform a nucleophilic attack?
(I)group I introns
(II)group II introns
(III)self splicing introns

A)I,II,III
B)I,II
C)I,III
D)II,III
E)none of the above

Question 34

What is abortive initiation of transcription by RNA polymerase?

A)initiation at nonpromoter sites prior to dissociation of the polymerase.
B)synthesis of short transcripts about 10 nucleotides long prior to commitment to elongation.
C)pausing by the polymerase during elongation.
D)failure to undergo the closed to open transition in the pre-initiation complex.
E)none of the above

Question 35

Which of the following is correct regarding splicing?

A)CPSFs are products of RNA sequences designed to recognize the 3'OH at the splice site.
B)PABIII recognizes the A rich sequences at the 5' end of the splice site.
C)Lariats are the sequence recognized by the cleavage site.
D)smURFs are used to recognize the poly A tail and initiate slicing
E)snRNPs are the protein product of U rich RNAs that partially complement the 5' splice junction.

Question 36

Which of the following best describes the cap nucleotide on a eukaryotic mRNA?

A)A
B)C
C)m⁷G
D)T
E)U

Question 37

In which of the following types of eukaryotics RNAs are introns completely removed most of the time,although exceptions can occur?
(I)mRNA
(II)rRNA
(III)tRNA

A)I,II
B)I,III
C)II,III
D)I,II,III
E)none of the above

Question 38

Which of the following is required for correct translation in eukaryote initiation?

A)poly(A)tail.
B)5' cap consisting of 7-methylguanosine.
C)intron excision.
D)alternative splicing.
E)exon skipping.

Question 39

Which of the following best describes the function of poly(A)tails for eukaryotic mRNAs?

A)They are required for accurate translation.
B)They have a protective role against degradation.
C)They signal transcription termination.
D)They function as splice sites.
E)No role has been observed for these features.

Question 40

Which of the following are components of the spliceosome?
(I)primary transcript RNA.
(II)snRNPs.
(III)primary transcript RNA binding proteins.

A)I,II
B)I,III
C)II,III
D)I,II,III
E)III only

Question 41

Which of the following DNA sequences would most likely result in transcription termination?

A)5' GCGCCTAGGCGCATTTTT 3'
3' CGCGGATCCGCGTAAAAA 5
'
B)5' GCGCCCGCTTTTTT 3'
3' CGCGGGCCAAAAAA 5'
C)5' GCGCCCGCAAAAAA 3'
3' CGCGGGCCTTTTTT 5'
D)5' GCGCCTAGGCGCAAAAAAA 3'
3' CGCGGATCCGCGTTTTTTT 5'
E)none of the above

Question 42

Which of the following would result in the tightest binding association between E.coli RNA polymerase and DNA?

A)core enzyme binding single stranded DNA at the promoter region
B)open complex bound to the Pribnow box
C)core enzyme binding duplex DNA following promoter recognition
D)haloenzyme binding duplex DNA at the promoter site
E)haloenzyme binding duplex DNA following promoter recognition

Question 43

Which of the following if TRUE regarding prokaryotic DNA polymerase?
(I)Abortive initiation is common.
(II)RNA polymerase processivity increases with the β clamp.
(III)The error rate is 1 in 10⁶.
(IV)Initiation of transcription begins at the −10 position.

A)I,II,III
B)I only
C)III only
D)III,IV
E)II,III,IV

Question 44

Which of the following eukaryotic proteins are encoded by genes which have no known introns?

A)interferons
B)tropomyosin
C)SXL protein
D)all of the above
E)none of the above

Question 45

In eukaryotes,which of the following would decrease the rate of transcription?

A)mutation in the nucleotide sequences at −10 and −35
B)mutation in the nucleotide sequences at −10 and +5
C)mutation in the nucleotide sequences at −70 and −90
D)mutation at the $\sigma$ binding site
E)all of the above

Question 46

The function of the TATA box is

A)to recognize the $\sigma$ subunit and correctly line up the RNA polymerase.
B)to terminate active RNA transcription.
C)to form a hairpin for RNA transcription termination.
D)to provide a binding location for the Rho protein.
E)to stimulate formation of the transcription bubble.

Question 47

What function is accomplished by snoRNAs?

A)spicing site recognition
B)capping of the mRNA
C)methylation of tRNAs
D)methylation of rRNA
E)splicosome catalytic site recognition

Question 48

Which of the following is FALSE regarding prokaryotic transcription termination?

A)It can occur in a factor dependent fashion.
B)It can occur in a factor independent fashion.
C)It may involve the Rho protein.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above

Question 49

Which of the following increases the stability of the elongation complex during transcription in E.coli?

A)formation of the open complex
B)dissociation of the $\sigma$ subunit
C)mutations in the promoter region
D)production of abortive transcripts
E)All of the above increase the stability.

Question 50

Which is TRUE regarding structure and function of RNAPII?
(I)Distortion of the DNA by ~90° isolates the template base such that it can be properly paired.
(II)The "clamp" moves over the DNA increasing processivity.
(III)RNAPII accomplishes proofreading by forcing mispaired nucleotides against the
"wall" causing distortion such that mispairs can be cleaved by the "rudder."

A)I,II,III
B)I,II
C)II,III
D)II only
E)III only