Deck 14: Medications and Electrical Therapy

Question 1

What is epinephrine's effect on blood pressure?

A)No effect
B)Increases blood pressure
C)Decreases blood pressure
D)Causes a sudden increase in BP,then a profound drop in BP

Answer 1

B

Question 2

When Mrs.Hoffstetter passed out at the mall,paramedics found her heart rate to be 34.Which of the following medications would be appropriate to give to cause the heart rate to increase?

A)Digitalis
B)Propranolol
C)Adenosine
D)Atropine

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Certain glaucoma medications can cause

A)Bradycardias.
B)An increase in heart rate.
C)ST segment elevation.
D)Hemiblocks.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

In a cardiac arrest emergency,epinephrine should be given in which of the following ways?

A)Via a slow-release skin patch
B)Intravenously
C)Orally
D)Intramuscularly

Question 5

Beta-blockers must be used with caution in patients with

A)Supraventricular tachycardia.
B)Asthma or chronic lung disease.
C)Hypertension.
D)Atrial tachycardia.

Question 6

Hypoxia is treated with the administration of

A)Digitalis.
B)Verapamil.
C)Epinephrine.
D)Oxygen.

Question 7

Which of the following interferes with the movement of calcium ions through the cardiac cell membranes?

A)Propranolol
B)Nifedipine
C)Digitalis
D)Nitroglycerin

Question 8

Atropine would NOT be appropriate in the treatment of

A)Junctional bradycardia with heart rate of 38.
B)Third-degree AV block with heart rate of 32.
C)Idioventricular rhythm with heart rate of 28.
D)Supraventricular tachycardia with heart rate of 167.

Question 9

Which combination of medications would be appropriate to use for the patient in asystole?

A)Atropine and lidocaine
B)Epinephrine and amiodarone
C)Verapamil and digitalis
D)Atropine and epinephrine

Question 10

Atropine has what effect on the heart?

A)It increases the heart rate.
B)It decreases the heart rate.
C)It minimizes atrial kick.
D)It has no effect on the heart.

Question 11

Beta-blockers have what effect on heart rate and contractility?

A)Increased heart rate and contractility
B)Decreased heart rate and contractility
C)Increased heart rate and decreased contractility
D)Decreased heart rate and increased contractility

Question 12

Amiodarone can be used to treat arrhythmias originating in all locations EXCEPT the

A)Sinus node.
B)Atrium.
C)AV junction.
D)Ventricle.

Question 13

Your patient is in ventricular tachycardia with a heart rate of 124.His blood pressure is stable but he's complaining of mild dizziness.Appropriate treatment for THIS PATIENT AT THIS TIME is

A)Immediate defibrillation.
B)Amiodarone to decrease ventricular irritability and help convert the rhythm back to sinus.
C)Immediate electrical cardioversion.
D)CPR.

Question 14

Digitalis is a

A)Calcium channel blocker.
B)Beta-blocker.
C)Sodium channel blocker.
D)Cardiac glycoside.

Question 15

Which of the following is NOT used in the treatment of rapid ventricular arrhythmias?

A)Lidocaine
B)Amiodarone
C)Procainamide
D)Digitalis

Question 16

Propranolol (Inderol)is a

A)Beta-blocker.
B)Cardiac glycoside.
C)Calcium channel blocker.
D)Sodium channel blocker.

Question 17

Which of the following medications blocks vagus nerve effects on the heart?

A)Digitalis
B)Epinephrine
C)Atropine
D)Verapamil

Question 18

Which of the following directly causes increased tissue oxygenation?

A)Lidocaine
B)Oxygen
C)Epinephrine
D)Atropine

Question 19

Your 46-year-old patient,Mr.Joseph,is brought by ambulance to the ER.There are no P waves or QRS complexes at all on his rhythm strip-only a flat line.Which of the following medications is INAPPROPRIATE for treating this rhythm?

A)Atropine
B)Epinephrine
C)Oxygen
D)Propranolol

Question 20

Epinephrine has what effect on heart rate and contractility?

A)Increased heart rate and contractility
B)Increased heart rate,decreased contractility
C)Decreased heart rate and contractility
D)Decreased heart rate,increased contractility

Question 21

A transcutaneous pacemaker paces the heart

A)Through the skin.
B)By way of a wire threaded through a vein and into the heart.
C)By way of a wire attached to the surface of the heart.
D)Permanently.

Question 22

Which of the following is NOT true about asynchronous pacemakers?

A)They are the same as demand pacemakers.
B)They are the same as fixed-rate pacemakers.
C)They fire at their preset rate regardless of intrinsic beats.
D)They can cause fibrillation if the paced beat lands on the vulnerable period of the intrinsic beat's cardiac cycle.

Question 23

The second letter of the pacemaker code tells the

A)Chamber paced.
B)Chamber sensed.
C)Pacemaker's response to sensed events.
D)Programmability of the pacemaker.

Question 24

Your patient has his own P waves but no QRS complexes.His DDD pacemaker should

A)Ignore the intrinsic P waves,providing him with paced P waves and QRS complexes.
B)Provide him with QRS complexes at a preset rate,ignoring intrinsic P waves.
C)Sense the intrinsic P waves and deliver QRS complexes to follow those P waves within a preset rate range.
D)Be inhibited and wait until there are no P waves or QRS complexes.

Question 25

The pacemaker's generation of an electrical impulse is called

A)Capture.
B)Firing.
C)Sensing.
D)Conductivity.

Question 26

Capture is evidenced on the EKG by the presence of

A)P waves or QRS complexes following the pacemaker spikes.
B)Pacemaker spikes at regular intervals.
C)Paced beats on top of intrinsic beats.
D)An appropriate distance between intrinsic beats and paced beats.

Question 27

An AICD is

A)A defibrillator meant for use by the lay public.
B)An implanted defibrillator.
C)A cardiac monitor and defibrillator meant for use by health care professionals.
D)The same as a monitor-defibrillator.

Question 28

An AV universal pacemaker paces which chamber(s)of the heart?

A)Right atrium
B)Right ventricle
C)Left atrium
D)Right atrium and right ventricle

Question 29

If the synchronizer button is on when trying to shock the patient in VFib,

A)No shock will be delivered at all.
B)Shock delivery will be delayed.
C)The health care worker will be shocked.
D)A dangerously large shock will be delivered.

Question 30

An AED is

A)A defibrillator meant for use by the lay public.
B)An implanted defibrillator.
C)A cardiac monitor and defibrillator meant for use by health care professionals.
D)The same as a monitor-defibrillator.

Question 31

If a pacemaker fails to fire,what is shown on the EKG?

A)Lack of a P or QRS after the pacemaker spike
B)Lack of a pacemaker spike where there should be one
C)Paced beats on top of intrinsic beats
D)Tall,pointy T waves

Question 32

When a pacemaker fires,it creates what sign on the EKG?

A)A P wave
B)A QRS complex
C)A T wave
D)A spike

Question 33

A DDD pacemaker paces which chamber(s)of the heart?

A)Right atrium
B)Right ventricle
C)Left ventricle
D)Right atrium and right ventricle

Question 34

Your patient is in pulseless ventricular tachycardia.Your first intervention should be

A)Defibrillation.
B)Amiodarone bolus IV.
C)Electrical cardioversion.
D)To encourage the patient to try vagal maneuvers.

Question 35

A VOO pacemaker would pace the

A)Ventricle,sense the ventricle,and be inhibited by intrinsic ventricular beats.
B)Atrium,sense nothing,and have no response to sensed events since it cannot sense.
C)Ventricle,sense nothing,and have no response to sensed events since it cannot sense.
D)Atrium and ventricle,sense atrium and ventricle,and have both an inhibitory and a triggered response to sensed events.

Question 36

Which of the following would NOT be an indication for a pacemaker?

A)Idioventricular rhythm
B)Sinus rhythm
C)Third-degree AV block
D)Mobitz II second-degree AV block

Question 37

DDD pacemakers

A)Pace the atrium and the ventricle in succession.
B)Pace only the atrium.
C)Pace only the ventricle.
D)Are used primarily to manage slow atrial fibrillation.

Question 38

Which of the following is TRUE?

A)Defibrillation tends to involve a smaller shock than cardioversion.
B)Cardioversion involves synchronizing the shock with the cardiac cycle.
C)Defibrillation is the preferred method of converting atrial tachycardia back to sinus rhythm.
D)Defibrillation is the treatment of choice for atrial fibrillation.

Question 39

A fixed-rate pacemaker

A)Fires only on demand.
B)Senses intrinsic beats.
C)Fires at its preset rate regardless of intrinsic beats.
D)Is called synchronous.

Question 40

The first letter of the pacemaker code tells the

A)Chamber sensed.
B)Chamber paced.
C)Pacemaker's response to sensed events.
D)Programmability of the pacemaker.

Question 41

Mr.Jacob had a permanent DDD pacemaker implanted a few days ago.Today,he cardiac arrested and died.What happens to the pacemaker when the patient is deceased?

A)The pacemaker battery fires at a slower rate for a few days,then stops.
B)Nothing happens-the patient can't die with a pacemaker in place.
C)The pacemaker stops automatically at the patient's death.
D)The pacemaker battery continues to fire at its programmed rate until the battery runs out.

Question 42

The pulse generator is

A)The battery pack.
B)The pacing wire.
C)A specially adapted pacing catheter that generates its own electricity.
D)Not needed in transvenous pacemakers.

Question 43

Mrs.Chilton has a VVI pacemaker set at a rate of 70.Which of the following rhythms should the pacemaker prevent from happening?

A)Junctional bradycardia
B)Ventricular tachycardia
C)Torsades de pointes
D)SVT

Question 44

Epinephrine is a beta-blocker.

Question 45

Mr.Gorp has a pacemaker that senses atrial and ventricular depolarizations and paces atrium and ventricle.It can be inhibited or triggered by sensed events.What kind of pacemaker is this?

A)DOO
B)VVI
C)DVI
D)DDD

Question 46

VVI pacemakers are inserted into which chamber of the heart?

A)Right atrium
B)Left atrium
C)Right ventricle
D)Left ventricle

Question 47

Atrial fibrillation should be defibrillated rather than cardioverted.

Question 48

Defibrillation is the treatment of choice for VFib.

Question 49

Your patient's temporary pacemaker lost capture when he turned from his back onto his side.What action is most likely to restore capture?

A)Replace the pacemaker battery.
B)Surgically remove and replace the defective pacemaker.
C)Turn the patient back onto his back.
D)Turn the sensitivity up.

Question 50

Beta-blockers slow the heart rate and decrease blood pressure.

Question 51

An AED is meant for use by health care workers only.

Question 52

Which of the following describes undersensing?

A)The pacemaker fires but does not cause depolarization in the chamber being paced.
B)The pacemaker incorrectly interprets something as a depolarization and is inhibited from firing.
C)The pacemaker fails to sense intrinsic beats and paces on top of them.
D)The pacemaker fails to generate an impulse.

Question 53

AICDs can be found at malls,airports,and on airplanes.

Question 54

Six to seven seconds of asystole sometimes follows administration of adenosine.

Question 55

Amiodarone is used to treat ventricular and supraventricular rhythms.

Question 56

Pacemaker spikes inside T waves and QRS complexes are a sign of which malfunction?

A)Failure to fire
B)Oversensing
C)Undersensing
D)Loss of capture

Question 57

Pulseless VTach is treated like VFib and defibrillated.

Question 58

Mrs.McShelton has a VVI pacemaker.She is having pacemaker spikes in the T waves,QRS complexes,and ST segments of her intrinsic beats.This is indicative of

A)A normally functioning pacemaker.
B)Failure to fire.
C)Loss of capture.
D)Undersensing.

Question 59

The most common pacemaker malfunctions include ALL BUT which of the following?

A)Failure to fire
B)Failure to capture
C)Failure to sense
D)Failure to repolarize

Question 60

Cardioversion and defibrillation are the same thing.

Question 61

Oxygen administration has risks and benefits,just like medications do.

Question 62

Pacemaker spikes inside T waves and QRS complexes are indicative of proper sensing.

Question 63

Antiarrhythmic medications are used to treat dysrhythmias.

Question 64

Rate-responsive pacemakers provide a QRS after the patient's intrinsic P waves,up to a certain rate limit.

Question 65

Transvenous pacemakers are attached to the skin on the front and back of the patient.

Question 66

Digitalis is classified as a cardiac glycoside.

Question 67

Transcutaneous pacemakers are meant for permanent use.

Question 68

Changing the patient's position can help restore capture.

Question 69

One action that can correct failure to fire is to change the battery.

Question 70

Class IV antiarrhythmics are calcium channel blockers.

Question 71

Overdrive suppression of tachyarrhythmias is an indication for a pacemaker.

Question 72

Epinephrine is a first-line treatment for SVT.

Question 73

Pacemaker batteries last 5 to 15 years,depending on their use.

Question 74

Sodium channel blockers are Class II antiarrhythmics.

Question 75

Calcium channel blockers slow AV conduction and decrease myocardial contractility.

Question 76

A common cause of failure to fire is undersensing.

Question 77

Atropine cannot be given during cardiac arrest.

Question 78

Pacemakers will continue to fire until the battery runs out,even after the patient has died.

Question 79

Sodium bicarbonate is given to increase the blood's acidity.

Question 80

Emergency cardiac medications should be given by mouth during a cardiac arrest.