Deck 11: Overview of the Routine Blood Bank Laboratory

Question 1

What one forward-typing reagent can be used to confirm O units collected from another facility?

A) Anti-A
B) Anti-B
C) Anti-A,B
D) Anti-H

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Which of the following would prolong labeling of the packed red blood cell unit?

A) Nonreactive STS
B) Anti-K in donor plasma
C) ALT = 31 U/L
D) None of the above

Answer 2

D

Question 3

All blood banks in the United States are regulated by what agency?

A) AABB
B) FDA
C) CAP
D) Joint Commission

Answer 3

B

Question 4

A three-cell antibody screening set provides _____ antigen expression in all major blood group systems except Kell.

A) homozygous
B) heterozygous
C) homogenous
D) heterogenous

Question 5

In what department of the blood bank laboratory is knowledge of patient diagnosis, drug history, age, and transfusion history most important?

A) Donor processing
B) Main laboratory
C) Reference laboratory
D) Component preparation and storage

Question 6

All of the following procedures might be done in an investigation of an ABO discrepancy except:

A) increasing incubation time for reverse grouping.
B) secretor studies.
C) neutralization studies with urine.
D) testing with anti-A₁ lectin.

Question 7

A group O whole blood unit collected from an outside facility was needed for a group A recipient. How can packed cells be made in the shortest time possible?

A) Red blood cell sedimentation
B) Refrigerated centrifugation
C) Vertical rotation
D) Filtration

Question 8

A 40-year-old male presented in the ER with acute bleeding. The technologist received a specimen but was unable to resolve a typing discrepancy between the forward and reverse typings. What blood type should the patient receive for emergency transfusion?

A) Type specific uncrossmatched packed RBCs
B) O-negative crossmatched packed RBCs
C) O-negative uncrossmatched packed RBCs
D) Electronic crossmatched blood

Question 9

A positive DAT may be seen in:

A) warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia.
B) cold agglutinin syndrome.
C) hemolytic transfusion reaction.
D) all of the above.

Question 10

Platelets are stored on/in a(n) _____ , which provides constant agitation.

A) incubator
B) cryostat
C) rotator
D) refrigerator

Question 11

What quantitative test is performed when the rosette test for fetal maternal hemorrhage is positive?

A) Hemoglobin electrophoresis
B) Kleihauer-Betke
C) Fetal screen
D) Titration

Question 12

Which of the following might be used to investigate a cold autoantibody?

A) Titration
B) Rabbit erythrocyte stroma
C) Elution
D) A₂ cells

Question 13

What test(s) are involved when a physician orders a 4-unit crossmatch on a patient?

A) IS crossmatch
B) AHG crossmatch
C) ABO, Rh, antibody screen, IS crossmatch
D) ABO, Rh, DAT, IS crossmatch

Question 14

How are 8 units of cryoprecipitate usually issued?

A) As eight individual units
B) As one pooled unit
C) As four multiple units of two
D) None of the above

Question 15

In which section of the blood bank laboratory would blood be issued for transfusion?

A) Component preparation and storage
B) Donor processing
C) Main laboratory
D) Reference laboratory

Question 16

Which cells are used for a donor's antibody screen?

A) Screening cells (2 vials)
B) Pooled screening cells (2 donors)
C) Screening cells (3 vials)
D) Autologous cells

Question 17

Why are monoclonal anti-D reagents preferred over the slide test reagents?

A) They contain a low protein concentration and are not prone to false-positive reactions.
B) They contain a high protein concentration and are not prone to false-negative reactions.
C) They contain albumin, which acts as a potentiator.
D) None of the above

Question 18

Anti-Jk^a was identified in a donor sample. What blood products can be made from the parent unit?

A) Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
B) Platelets
C) Packed RBCs
D) None

Question 19

Which of the following is a representation of an automated cell washer?

A) The unit is introduced into sterile bowl, centrifuged, and collected
B) The unit is introduced into sterile bowl, saline is added, and the unit is collected
C) The unit is introduced into sterile bowl, saline is added, the mixture is centrifuged, supernatant is discarded, and the unit is collected
D) The unit is collected and centrifuged

Question 20

Why would A₂ cells be used in the reverse group in donor processing?

A) To differentiate an A subgroup from a group AB
B) To differentiate an A subgroup from a group B
C) To differentiate an A subgroup from a group O
D) None of the above

Question 21

In order to be considered fresh frozen plasma, the plasma needs to be prepared within _____ of collection?

A) 1 hour
B) 6 hours
C) 8 hours
D) 24 hours

Question 22

Why would an Rh type be ordered on a cord blood sample?

A) To determine mother's candidacy for RhIG if she is Rh-negative
B) To determine mother's candidacy for RhIG if she is Rh-positive
C) Because the mother had a spontaneous abortion
D) None of the above

Question 23

Which of the following is not normally collected as a pheresis product?

A) White blood cells
B) Red blood cells
C) Plasma
D) Platelets

Question 24

Tests performed on donors (ABO, Rh, antibody screen, viral testing) are only performed on first donations.

Question 25

In which department of the blood bank laboratory would an ABO discrepancy be resolved?

A) Component preparation and storage
B) Donor processing
C) Main laboratory
D) Reference laboratory

Question 26

What additive is used to freeze blood for long-term storage at -65°C?

A) Glycerol
B) Glycine
C) Glutamic acid
D) Dextran

Question 27

What is the main concern for obstetric patients in prenatal testing?

A) Antibody that causes hemolytic transfusion reaction
B) Drug-induced antibody
C) Antibody that causes hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)
D) Autoantibodies

Question 28

Which of the following options are suitability requirements for product labeling?

A) Absence of detectable antibodies
B) No discrepancies in ABO and Rh testing
C) Nonreactive viral marker tests
D) All of the above

Question 29

A proper blood bank specimen is good for how many days after it is drawn from a patient that has had a prior transfusion within 90 days?

A) 24 hours
B) 3 days
C) 7 days
D) 14 days

Question 30

Which patient is most likely to require irradiated products?

A) Patient undergoing a bone marrow transplant
B) Patient undergoing open heart surgery
C) Newborn
D) Geriatric patient

Question 31

All of the following viral tests are required for donor processing except:

A) HBsAg
B) CMV
C) anti-HIV
D) anti-HTLV-I

Question 32

A STAT type and screen comes from surgery. Your institution uses a blood bank band ID bracelet system. The nurse who obtained specimens did not label them with the blood bank number before she handed them to transport to take to the laboratory. What would be the most appropriate action to take?

A) Call surgery and have the nurse come down and properly label the specimens.
B) Accept the specimen as is.
C) Reject the specimen and have it re-collected.
D) Label the specimen yourself and continue with testing.

Question 33

Why can the Rh-hr control be eliminated from donor processing?

A) An Rh-positive unit of blood typed as an Rh-negative would only be transfused to an Rh-positive patient.
B) An Rh-negative unit of blood typed as an Rh-positive would only be transfused to an Rh-negative patient.
C) An Rh-negative unit of blood typed as an Rh-positive would only be transfused to an Rh-positive patient.
D) None of the above

Question 34

It is December 1, 2012, and you irradiate an O-negative packed RBC that you have in inventory, which outdates January 5, 2013. What will the new outdate be for that unit?

A) December 2, 2012
B) December 3, 2012
C) December 29, 2012
D) January 5, 2013

Question 35

Granulocyte concentrates follow the same compatibility protocol as packed red blood cells.

Question 36

Which of the following would lead to non-acceptance of a blood bank specimen?

A) Initials of phlebotomist not on specimen
B) A patient name spelled incorrectly
C) An erroneous Social Security number
D) All of the above