Deck 9: Blood, Lymphatic, and Immune Systems

Question 1

What is a sentinel node?

A) Largest node in a body area
B) Largest node in the entire body
C) Node that first receives drainage from a cancer-containing area
D) Node that is sensitive to pain
E) Node that does not have T or B cells

Answer 1

Node that first receives drainage from a cancer-containing area

Question 2

The CF chrom/o means

A) net.
B) embryonic.
C) different.
D) change.
E) color.

Answer 2

color.

Question 3

Hemostasis is a function of

A) monocytes.
B) erythrocytes.
C) macrophages.
D) neutrophils.
E) platelets.

Answer 3

platelets.

Question 4

The chief component of blood plasma is

A) water.
B) plasma proteins.
C) electrolytes.
D) hormones.
E) excretory products.

Question 5

The CF sider/o means

A) net.
B) protein.
C) different.
D) shape.
E) iron.

Question 6

What are the smallest formed elements found in blood?

A) Neutrophils
B) Basophils
C) Monocytes
D) Erythrocytes
E) Platelets

Question 7

The primary function of platelets is

A) phagocytosis.
B) plasma formation.
C) cellular immunity.
D) antigen formation.
E) blood clotting.

Question 8

Destruction of old RBCs is a function of the

A) bone marrow.
B) spleen.
C) tonsils.
D) thymus.
E) lymph nodes.

Question 9

The liquid medium of blood is

A) plasma.
B) myeloid tissue.
C) hemoglobin.
D) heparin.
E) fibrinogen.

Question 10

Blood development is called

A) autoimmunity.
B) hematocrit.
C) hematopoiesis.
D) hemostasis.
E) dyscrasia.

Question 11

Phagocytosis is a function of which cell?

A) Macrocyte
B) Erythrocyte
C) Macrophage
D) Thrombocyte
E) Platelet

Question 12

Blood plasma minus fibrinogen and other clotting factors is

A) serum.
B) heparin.
C) thromboplastin.
D) cytoplasm.
E) histamine.

Question 13

The combining form (CF) phag/o means

A) phase.
B) strange.
C) swallowing, eating.
D) different.
E) same.

Question 14

The CF poikil/o means

A) varied, irregular.
B) foreign.
C) pointed.
D) iron.
E) swallowing, eating.

Question 15

Which cell type is responsible for humoral immunity?

A) T cell
B) Monocyte
C) Macrophage
D) B lymphocyte
E) Erythrocyte

Question 16

Which type of blood cell is responsible for the immune response?

A) Neutrophil
B) Lymphocyte
C) Thrombocyte
D) Granulocyte
E) Erythrocyte

Question 17

The chemical messengers that regulate many activities associated with immunity and inflammation are called

A) proteins.
B) albumins.
C) immunoglobulins.
D) cytokines.
E) cytotoxins.

Question 18

A dendritic cell is a(n)

A) immature neutrophil.
B) blastic red blood cell (RBC).
C) B cell.
D) specialized macrophage.
E) T cell.

Question 19

The CF ser/o means

A) dry.
B) serum.
C) strange, foreign.
D) iron.
E) change.

Question 20

Which two blood cells are chiefly responsible for acquired immunity?

A) Lymphocytes and platelets
B) Platelets and leukocytes
C) Monocytes and platelets
D) Leukocytes and lymphocytes
E) Monocytes and lymphocytes

Question 21

An acquired abnormal immune response is a(n)

A) allergy.
B) bullae.
C) fissure.
D) ulcer.
E) papillae.

Question 22

The oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is deficient in which condition?

A) Erythrocytosis
B) Leukocytosis
C) Anemia
D) Leukemia
E) Polycythemia

Question 23

The suffix -globin means

A) decrease.
B) red.
C) iron.
D) protein.
E) carrying, transmission.

Question 24

The CF blast/o means

A) granule.
B) gland.
C) embryonic cell.
D) clumping, gluing.
E) color.

Question 25

Inflammation of the spleen is called

A) splenitis.
B) splenorrhea.
C) splenoptosis.
D) splenocele.
E) splenorrhagia.

Question 26

The CF thym/o means

A) strange, foreign.
B) heat.
C) blood clot.
D) gland.
E) thymus gland.

Question 27

Which type of anemia involves severe pain caused by crescent-shaped RBCs that are unable to pass through blood vessels?

A) Sickle cell anemia
B) Aplastic anemia
C) Hemolytic anemia
D) Pernicious anemia
E) Iron deficiency anemia

Question 28

The suffix -penia means

A) attraction for.
B) decrease, deficiency.
C) abnormal condition.
D) standing still.
E) carrying, transmission.

Question 29

Which term means the ability to develop an immune response?

A) healthy
B) immunocompetent
C) vigorous
D) apathy
E) immunodeficiency

Question 30

A flare-up of an autoimmune disease is called

A) syncope.
B) induration.
C) remission.
D) urticaria.
E) exacerbation.

Question 31

The CF thromb/o means

A) throbbing.
B) blood clot.
C) chest.
D) thymus.
E) spleen.

Question 32

The suffix -stasis means

A) forming.
B) remaining.
C) standing still.
D) containing.
E) clotting.

Question 33

Disease of a gland is a(n)

A) immunodeficiency.
B) thymopathy.
C) adenopathy.
D) adenomegaly.
E) adenoiditis.

Question 34

The process in which a transplant recipient's immune system attacks the transplanted organ or tissue is called

A) disseminated intravascular coagulation.
B) viscerogenic.
C) graft-versus-host disease.
D) graft rejection.
E) graft elimination.

Question 35

A disorder characterized by the immune system causing destruction of the individual's own tissue is called

A) sensitization.
B) apoplexy.
C) immunodeficiency.
D) autoimmunity.
E) induration.

Question 36

The suffix -phil means

A) decrease, deficiency.
B) protection.
C) formation, production.
D) attraction for.
E) formation.

Question 37

The prefix aniso- means

A) unequal, dissimilar.
B) small.
C) lacking, without.
D) same, equal.
E) varied.

Question 38

The suffix -stasis means

A) remain.
B) blood condition.
C) protein.
D) standing still.
E) decrease.

Question 39

A mass of extravasated, usually clotted blood found in tissues or organs is called

A) hemostasis.
B) hemophilia.
C) hematin.
D) hemangioma.
E) hematoma.

Question 40

The suffix -phylaxis means

A) protection.
B) carrying, transmission.
C) decrease, deficiency.
D) standing still.
E) formation, production.

Question 41

Which type of transplant is prepared from the recipient's own bone marrow?

A) Autologous
B) Homologous
C) Heterologous
D) Xenograft
E) Allograft

Question 42

Pinpoint hemorrhages that appear on the lower leg, usually associated with decreased platelets, are called

A) ecchymosis.
B) petechiae.
C) butterfly rash.
D) hematoma.
E) extravasation.

Question 43

Which hereditary disorder involves impairment of the blood-clotting mechanism?

A) Anemia
B) Leukemia
C) Infectious mononucleosis
D) Polycythemia
E) Hemophilia

Question 44

Which type of bone marrow transplant is prepared from a compatible donor?

A) Autologous
B) Homologous
C) Heterologous
D) Xenograft
E) Heterograft

Question 45

A decrease in the number of circulating RBCs is called

A) erythrophilia.
B) erythrocytosis.
C) erythropenia.
D) erythemia.
E) erythroblastosis.

Question 46

Which cell is associated with AIDS?

A) Erythrocyte
B) Neutrophil
C) Eosinophil
D) Helper T cell
E) Platelet

Question 47

Which disorder is associated with a "butterfly rash" on the nose and cheeks?

A) Leukemia
B) Multiple myeloma
C) Systemic lupus erythematosus
D) Infectious mononucleosis
E) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Question 48

A malignant tumor of plasma cells in the bone marrow is called

A) leukemia.
B) lymphadenopathy.
C) multiple myeloma.
D) osteoma.
E) osteocarcinoma.

Question 49

Complications of infectious mononucleosis include

A) hepatomegaly and splenomegaly.
B) hepatomegaly and gastromegaly.
C) gastromegaly and petechiae.
D) anemia and leukemia.
E) anemia and hemarthrosis.

Question 50

Which type of anemia is caused by bone marrow failure?

A) Aplastic
B) Hemolytic
C) Hemorrhagic
D) Pernicious
E) Sickle cell

Question 51

An excessive elevation of erythrocytes is called

A) erythrocytosis.
B) erythropenia.
C) erythema.
D) erythroblastoma.
E) erythrocytolysis.

Question 52

Patients with aquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) commonly develop:

A) liver cancer.
B) dementia.
C) opportunistic infections.
D) multiple myeloma.
E) chronic anemia.

Question 53

Which test detects and diagnoses bleeding or clotting disorders?

A) Complete blood count
B) Hemoglobin evaluation
C) Prothrombin time
D) Hematocrit
E) Differential

Question 54

The type of leukemia arising in bone marrow cells is

A) Monocytic.
B) Lymphocytic.
C) Myelogenous.
D) Erythrocytic.
E) Erythroblastic.

Question 55

What is a viral disorder caused by the Epstein-Barr virus?

A) Thrombocytopenia
B) Von Willebrand disease
C) Thrombocythemia
D) Anemia
E) Infectious mononucleosis

Question 56

The initial exposure to an allergen is called

A) sensitization.
B) immunocompetency.
C) urticaria.
D) induration.
E) anaphylaxis.

Question 57

Which treatment alters, enhances, stimulates, or restores the body's natural immune mechanisms to treat disease?

A) Biopsy
B) Bone marrow aspiration
C) Radiation therapy
D) Immunotherapy
E) Chemotherapy

Question 58

Which laboratory test diagnoses infectious mononucleosis?

A) Hematocrit
B) Complete blood count
C) Monospot
D) Schilling
E) Von Willebrand

Question 59

The presence of bacteria or their toxins in blood is called

A) sepsis.
B) hemolysis.
C) bacteriuria.
D) hemosiderin.
E) hemophilia.

Question 60

An extreme, life-threatening response to an allergen is called

A) induration.
B) anaphylaxis.
C) asthma.
D) sensitization.
E) autoimmunity.

Question 61

Which treatment uses antibody mixtures administered via intravenous, subcutaneous, or intramuscular routes to treat immunodeficiencies and autoimmune diseases?

A) Bone marrow transplant
B) Blood transfusion
C) Immunoglobulin therapy
D) Plasma cell therapy
E) Anticoagulant therapy

Question 62

Which agents prevent blood-clot formation in deep veins?

A) Anticoagulants
B) Antifibrinolytics
C) Thrombolytics
D) Thrombostatics
E) Hemostatics

Question 63

Which laboratory test identifies antibodies that attack the nucleus of the individual's own body cells?

A) Bone marrow
B) Antinuclear antibody
C) Blood typing
D) Complete blood count
E) Blood culture

Question 64

Incision of a vein is called

A) venostasis.
B) phlebotomy.
C) phleborrhaphy.
D) phlebectopia.
E) venostomy.

Question 65

Which serology test helps diagnose infectious mononucleosis?

A) Schilling
B) Von Willebrand
C) Complete blood count
D) Prothrombin time
E) Monospot

Question 66

Which abbreviation refers to a disease associated with infectious mononucleosis?

A) CBC
B) ALL
C) AIDS
D) PCP
E) EBV

Question 67

Which form of treatment alters or enhances the body's natural immune mechanisms to treat diseases?

A) Immunosuppression
B) Immunodiffusion
C) Radiotherapy
D) Chemotherapy
E) Immunotherapy

Question 68

Infusion of blood for therapeutic purposes is called

A) culture.
B) transplant.
C) transfusion.
D) dialysis.
E) chemotherapy.

Question 69

Which test determines the presence of pathogens in the blood?

A) Complete blood count
B) Antinuclear antibody
C) Monospot
D) Blood culture
E) Transfusion

Question 70

What is the dialysis procedure that helps remove autoantibodies in autoimmune diseases?

A) Immunosuppression
B) Transfusion
C) Transplantation
D) Immunoglobulin therapy
E) Plasmapheresis

Question 71

Which procedure completely removes lymph nodes in an area containing cancer?

A) Partial lymphangiectomy
B) Total lymphangiectomy
C) Sentinel node excision
D) Radical lymphadenectomy
E) Partial lymphadenectomy

Question 72

Excision of the thymus is called

A) thymorrhaphy.
B) thymostomy.
C) thymotomy.
D) thymocentesis.
E) thymectomy.

Question 73

Which abbreviation stands for mononuclear leukocyte?

A) NK cells
B) eos
C) PMN
D) MNL
E) PT

Question 74

Which abbreviation denotes a common blood screening test?

A) PCP
B) CBC
C) CLL
D) APTT
E) AML

Question 75

Which abbreviation denotes a disease associated with "butterfly rash"?

A) CLL
B) EBV
C) SLE
D) PCP
E) AIDS

Question 76

Which sensitive imaging procedure detects abnormalities in bone marrow, especially in multiple myeloma?

A) Bone marrow x-ray
B) Bone marrow CT
C) Lymphoscintigraphy
D) Bone marrow MRI
E) Lymphangiography

Question 77

Which treatment uses the immune system stimulators to enhance the immune response?

A) Immunosuppression
B) Biotherapy
C) Immunodiffusion
D) Immunophoresis
E) Immunoprecipitation

Question 78

Which imaging test uses "tracers" to determine lymph flow or lymph obstructions?

A) Lymphoscintigraphy
B) Lymphangiography
C) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
D) X-ray
E) Computed tomography (CT)

Question 79

Which type of test helps identify leukemia?

A) Bone marrow aspiration
B) Sentinel node excision
C) Antinuclear antibody
D) Blood culture
E) Blood typing

Question 80

Which procedure removes lymph nodes to control the spread of cancer?

A) Lymphadenectomy
B) Plasmapheresis
C) Bone marrow aspiration
D) Transfusion
E) Lymphadenography