Deck 16: Additional Duties of the Phlebotomist

Question 1

Documentation of the correct handling of a urine drug collection specimen is provided by the:

A) urinalysis supervisor.
B) donor picture identification.
C) physician.
D) chain-of-custody forms.

Answer 1

D

Question 2

All of the following suggest possible tampering with a urine drug collection specimen except a:

A) temperature of 34°C.
B) pH of 9.5.
C) specific gravity of 1.002.
D) blue-green urine color.

Answer 2

A

Question 3

All of the following may be used to collect sweat electrolytes except:

A) coils.
B) syringes.
C) gauze.
D) filter paper.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Urine specimens that cannot be tested within 2 hours should be:

A) frozen.
B) refrigerated.
C) recollected.
D) incubated.

Question 5

The technique used to collect sweat electrolytes is called:

A) electrophoresis.
B) sweat chloride.
C) electrolyte stimulation
D) pilocarpine iontophoresis.

Question 6

All of the following may be given to outpatients for the collection of fecal specimens except:

A) paint-can style containers.
B) bedpans.
C) filter paper mailing kits.
D) wax-coated cardboard containers.

Question 7

When collecting sweat electrolytes, the collection site is cleansed before and after stimulation with:

A) isopropyl alcohol.
B) deionized water.
C) soap and water.
D) iodine.

Question 8

The sweat electrolyte test is used in the diagnosis of:

A) multiple sclerosis.
B) cystic fibrosis.
C) muscular dystrophy.
D) electrolyte imbalance.

Question 9

The technique for collecting a throat culture does not include:

A) use of a tongue depressor.
B) swabbing the inside of the cheek.
C) swabbing the back of the throat.
D) releasing transport media into the swab container.

Question 10

Midstream clean-catch urine specimens are delivered to:

A) hematology.
B) microbiology.
C) chemistry.
D) urinalysis.

Question 11

To obtain an accurate timed specimen, the patient is instructed to:

A) urinate into the container containing the preservative.
B) abstain from drinking fluids during the collection period.
C) begin and end the collection with an empty bladder.
D) empty the bladder after beginning the collection timing.

Question 12

A patient with a requisition for a semen analysis should be instructed to do all of the following except:

A) abstain from sexual activity for 3 days.
B) keep the specimen warm while delivering it to the laboratory.
C) collect the specimen in a condom.
D) deliver the specimen to the laboratory within 1 hour.

Question 13

Analysis of an incomplete 24-hour urine specimen will produce:

A) falsely increased results.
B) acceptable results after centrifugation.
C) errors in bar code comparisons.
D) falsely decreased results.

Question 14

Which of the following would disqualify a person from donating blood?

A) Temperature of 98°F.
B) Weight of 200 pounds.
C) Blood pressure of 140/85 mm Hg.
D) Hemoglobin of 11.0 gm/dL.

Question 15

Specimens collected using pilocarpine iontophoresis are used in the diagnosis of:

A) diabetes mellitus.
B) multiple sclerosis.
C) cystic fibrosis.
D) phenylketonuria.

Question 16

When a patient has a unit of blood drawn prior to surgery with the understanding that the unit may be given back during surgery, the collection is called:

A) therapeutic.
B) replacement.
C) transfusion.
D) autologous.

Question 17

Which of the following would not be needed when collecting a throat culture?

A) Flashlight
B) Blood agar culture plate
C) Tongue depressor
D) Sterile swab

Question 18

Failure to tightly seal specimens for sweat electrolytes during collection and transport will cause:

A) decreased values due to exposure to air.
B) decreased values due to exposure to light.
C) increased values due to evaporation.
D) increased values due to cellular contamination.

Question 19

The amount of blood collected from a person donating a unit of blood is:

A) 20 to 30 mL.
B) 100 to 200 mL.
C) 300 to 400 mL.
D) 400 to 500 mL.

Question 20

When a semen specimen is delivered to the laboratory, the phlebotomist should:

A) place the specimen in the refrigerator.
B) record the time of delivery.
C) place the specimen in an incubator.
D) record the time of collection.

Question 21

Which of the following pieces of equipment is located in the central processing area?

A) Microscope
B) Blood gas analyzer
C) Differential stainer
D) Centrifuge

Question 22

The distribution of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) specimen in tubes labeled #1, #2, and #3 should be:

A) #1 to hematology, #2 to chemistry, and #3 to microbiology.
B) #1 to chemistry, #2 to microbiology, and #3 to hematology.
C) #1 to microbiology, #2 to hematology, and #3 to chemistry.
D) #1 to hematology, #2 to microbiology, and #3 to chemistry.

Question 23

Reasons for interviewing potential blood donors include all of the following except:

A) protecting the donor from physical harm.
B) protecting the phlebotomist from bloodborne pathogens.
C) screening for possible exposure to bloodborne pathogens.
D) screening for conditions that might adversely affect the recipient.

Question 24

Interstate shipping of infectious material is regulated by the:

A) Centers for Disease Control.
B) U.S. Department of Transportation.
C) Occupational Safety and Health Administration.
D) U.S. Department of Health.

Question 25

Amniotic fluid received in the central processing area should be: 1. protected from light for bilirubin analysis.
2) delivered immediately to cytogenetics.
3) measured and an aliquot sent to hematology.
4) frozen for shipment to a reference laboratory.

A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 4
C) 1 and 2
D) 3 and 4

Question 26

Accessioning refers to:

A) a test performed in the chemistry section.
B) organization of requisition slips for morning sweeps.
C) assigning of identification numbers and distribution of specimens.
D) processing of specimens requiring special handling.

Question 27

Correct procedure for processing specimens to be sent to a reference laboratory is to:

A) freeze the specimens.
B) send whole blood at all times.
C) check the reference laboratory manual.
D) refrigerate specimens and transport on ice.

Question 28

Collection of donor blood differs from routine venipuncture in which way? 1. The site is cleansed twice
2) Veins in the antecubital area are preferred
3) Patients open and close their fists
4) The arm is elevated when pressure is applied

A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 4
C) 1 and 2
D) 3 and 4

Question 29

A phlebotomist who is unsure of the instructions to give a patient regarding collection of a specimen should:

A) check the laboratory procedure manual.
B) check with the physician's office.
C) look up the procedure in a reference manual.
D) ask the patient to return when the supervisor is present.

Question 30

All of the following are necessary when operating the centrifuge except:

A) firmly securing the lid before operating.
B) placing uncapped tubes across from each other.
C) checking for excessive vibration before walking away.
D) making a final check of balancing before closing the lid.

Question 31

The process in which a person donates a specific blood component and the remainder of the blood is returned to him or her is called:

A) apheresis.
B) therapeutic phlebotomy.
C) autologous donation.
D) component therapy.

Question 32

A special precaution to be taken with an amniotic fluid specimen is to:

A) deliver the specimen on ice.
B) keep the specimen at room temperature.
C) centrifuge the specimen within 1 hour.
D) protect the specimen from light.

Question 33

Which of the following tubes can be centrifuged immediately after collection?

A) Gold Hemogard stopper
B) Light blue stopper
C) Red stopper
D) Yellow/gray stopper

Question 34

Protective apparel worn in the central processing area should include all of the following except:

A) masks.
B) fluid-resistant lab coats.
C) gloves.
D) full-face shields.

Question 35

When persons donate blood for themselves in preparation for surgery it is called:

A) therapeutic phlebotomy.
B) autologous donation.
C) directed donation.
D) plateletpheresis.

Question 36

A therapeutic phlebotomy is frequently performed to treat:

A) polycythemia.
B) diabetes.
C) anemia.
D) hepatitis.

Question 37

To prevent hemolysis of donor blood:

A) hemostats are used to stop the flow of blood.
B) donors are not asked to clench their fists.
C) large-bore needles are used for collection.
D) alcohol is not used during site preparation.

Question 38

Fluid collected from a joint is called:

A) amniotic.
B) ascitic.
C) synovial.
D) peritoneal.

Question 39

A lumbar puncture is performed to collect:

A) synovial fluid.
B) amniotic fluid.
C) cerebrospinal fluid.
D) pleural fluid.

Question 40

Serum or plasma should be separated from cells by centrifugation within:

A) 20 minutes.
B) 60 minutes.
C) 90 minutes.
D) 120 minutes.

Question 41

A rehabilitated heroin user is an acceptable blood donor.

Question 42

International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision (ICD-9) codes and current procedural terminology (CPT) codes must be consistent with:

A) the type of laboratory information management system (LIMS).
B) bar codes on patient samples.
C) medical necessity.
D) the hospital computer system.

Question 43

A major safety concern when processing specimens is the:

A) production of aerosols.
B) use of transfer systems.
C) autoclaving of samples.
D) volume and type of specimen.

Question 44

It is acceptable to pump the fist during blood donation.

Question 45

A phlebotomist in central processing receives a serum separator tube (SST) with a requisition for tests performed in chemistry and at a reference laboratory. The phlebotomist should:

A) collect another SST.
B) send the serum to chemistry and request that they return it when finished.
C) ask the reference laboratory driver to return the specimen.
D) aliquot the specimen for both laboratories.

Question 46

A throat culture collection kit typically contains a sterile swab contained in:

A) a tube with a crushable ampule to keep the sample warm in transit.
B) a transport medium collection tube.
C) a tube with media that limits the growth of pathogenic organisms.
D) a tube with a crushable ampule to keep the sample cold in transit.

Question 47

Semen specimens for fertility studies should be collected in condoms.

Question 48

When processing a urine drug screen specimen, the phlebotomist checks the temperature of the specimen within 4 minutes of collection and notes that the temperature is below the acceptable range of 32.5°C to 37.7°C. This finding suggests that the specimen has been adulterated by the addition of:

A) warm water from the tap in the collection room.
B) a small amount of acid hidden in the collection room.
C) cold tap water or water from the toilet bowl in the collection room.
D) a small amount of alkali hidden in the collection room.

Question 49

A person can donate blood and then not give permission for the blood to be used.

Question 50

The temperature of a urine drug specimen must be taken within 4 minutes of collection.

Question 51

Prior to obtaining information from a laboratory information management system (LIMS), phlebotomists must:

A) obtain a requisition form.
B) learn the mnemonic codes.
C) understand the bar code system.
D) enter their assigned password.

Question 52

When using laboratory computer systems, phlebotomists are concerned with:

A) the path of information flow.
B) development of software packages.
C) entry and retrieval of data.
D) overall preventive maintenance.

Question 53

Urine drug specimen collections may be witnessed or unwitnessed.

Question 54

Entry of patient information into the computer is aided by the use of:

A) modems.
B) read-only memory.
C) bar codes.
D) random-access memory.

Question 55

A phlebotomist may be requested not to transport a specimen through the pneumatic tube system if it is to be tested for:

A) glucose.
B) cholesterol.
C) creatinine.
D) potassium.

Question 56

When reviewing instructions for the collection of a stool specimen for ova and parasites (O&P), the phlebotomist should remind the patient that the O&P test requires:

A) a 24-hour timed specimen kept at room temperature.
B) a random specimen kept in the refrigerator.
C) a 24-hour timed specimen kept in the refrigerator.
D) a random specimen kept at room temperature.

Question 57

When giving instructions to a patient before collecting a timed 24-hour urine specimen, all of the following considerations are important. Select the response that describes the most important consideration (except for proper patient and specimen identification).

A) The container must contain the proper preservative if required.
B) The collection period must be carefully timed.
C) All urine produced during the collection period must be placed into the container.
D) The specimen label must contain the start and stop date and time.

Question 58

Phlebotomists may be required to classify tests using a:

A) current procedural technology (CPT) code.
B) bar code.
C) International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision (ICD-9) code.
D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) code.

Question 59

After centrifuging a tube of blood from a patient with polycythemia, the:

A) amount of serum obtained will be decreased.
B) serum will appear lipemic.
C) plasma will be hemolyzed.
D) amount of plasma obtained will be increased.

Question 60

Transport media are required for throat culture swabs but not for rapid strep tests.

Question 61

A properly balanced centrifuge will vibrate.

Question 62

Health-care providers may be required to include an International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision (ICD-9) code on patient requisitions.
Matching

Question 63

Local specimen transport requires a leak-proof primary container and an absorbent secondary container.

Question 64

Match the following types of urine specimens with their purpose.
a.Confirmatory testing
c.Routine testing
b.Quantitative tests
d.Urine culture
First morning specimen

Question 65

Phlebotomists do not provide verbal instructions for specimen collection to patients.

Question 66

Match the following types of urine specimens with their purpose.
a.Confirmatory testing
c.Routine testing
b.Quantitative tests
d.Urine culture
Random specimen

Question 67

Match the following types of urine specimens with their purpose.
a.Confirmatory testing
c.Routine testing
b.Quantitative tests
d.Urine culture
Timed specimen

Question 68

Store blood specimens in an upright position during clotting.

Question 69

Match the following types of urine specimens with their purpose.
a.Confirmatory testing
c.Routine testing
b.Quantitative tests
d.Urine culture
Midstream clean-catch specimen