Deck 15: Neurological Disorders

Question 1

________ is an example of a malignant tumor derived from glial cells.

A) meningioma
B) pinealoma
C) angioma
D) metastatic oligodendrocytoma
E) astrocytoma.

Answer 1

D

Question 2

The key distinction between malignant and benign tumors is that

A) malignant tumors mostly appear within structures that are adjacent to large blood vessels.
B) a benign tumor is encapsulated by a distinct border.
C) benign tumors are invariably larger than malignant tumors.
D) malignant tumors arise from neurons rather than glia.
E) benign tumors induce apoptosis but malignant tumors do not.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

The toxic action of brain tumors relates to the

A) observation that tumors use up oxygen and glucose, thereby starving brain cells of energy substrates.
B) ability of tumor cells to stimulate the growth/division of adjacent nerve cells.
C) toxic action of oversecretion of the transmitter GABA from tumor cells.
D) ability of brain tumors to compress tissue, leading to cell death.
E) fact that tumors arising from neuron cells grow very rapidly thus producing tissue compression.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

The tonic phase of a grand mal seizure begins

A) when the cortex is inhibited by messages sent from diencephalic structures.
B) when an aura is produced within the cerebellum.
C) when neurons in the motor cortex contract the body muscles.
D) with an excessive release of glutamate in the hippocampus.
E) with a suppression of glycine release within the brain stem.

Question 5

Malignant brain tumors directly damage brain tissue by

A) compression and infiltration.
B) oversecreting glutamate, which in turns kills adjacent glial cells.
C) oxygen deprivation.
D) inducing hemorrhage.
E) releasing oxygen radicals into brain tissue.

Question 6

The key characteristic of a malignant tumor is that such a tumor

A) does not require surgery.
B) cannot cause brain damage.
C) has a distinct border.
D) spreads rapidly through infiltration of adjacent tissue.
E) can give off cancerous cells that in turn reach distant sites.

Question 7

A convulsion occurs when a seizure

A) is triggered by oxygen deprivation.
B) involves the motor cortex.
C) has been triggered by a toxic chemical.
D) involves a loss of consciousness.
E) is of the petit mal type in children.

Question 8

In contrast to simple partial seizures, complex partial seizures involve

A) a loss of consciousness.
B) alteration (but not loss) of consciousness.
C) a definite focus.
D) most of the brain.
E) scarred brain tissue.

Question 9

Which of the following is true of a benign brain tumor?

A) Benign tumors cause damage through glutamate release.
B) Benign tumors damage brain tissue by infiltration.
C) The flow of CSF can be increased by a growing benign tumor.
D) Benign tumors are encapsulated.
E) Benign tumors induce apoptosis cascades which kill neurons.

Question 10

The case of Mrs. R. involved ________ provoked by a tumor located between her frontal lobes.

A) motor seizures
B) partial paralysis
C) mutism
D) a stroke
E) a speech disorder

Question 11

Partial seizures

A) are more severe than generalized seizures.
B) involve the motor system.
C) involve widespread brain regions.
D) originate from a definite focus or source within the brain.
E) are accompanied by convulsions.

Question 12

A simple partial seizure

A) causes a loss of consciousness.
B) is the most severe form of seizure disorder.
C) involves all brain regions.
D) can cause changes in, but not loss of, consciousness.
E) involves widespread brain regions.

Question 13

The key characteristic of a benign tumor is that such a tumor

A) cannot cause brain damage.
B) does not require surgery.
C) has a distinct border.
D) spreads rapidly through infiltration of adjacent tissue.
E) mostly arises from neuron cell types.

Question 14

The nature of an aura experienced during a seizure varies depending on

A) whether the seizure is above or below threshold.
B) whether the motor system is involved.
C) the location of the seizure focus.
D) how long the person has experienced seizure activity.
E) the amount of fear experienced during the seizure.

Question 15

________ is characterized by periodic bouts of abnormally high excitation of cerebral neurons.

A) Parkinson's disease
B) Seizure disorder
C) Tay-Sachs disease
D) Alzheimer's disease
E) Encephalitis

Question 16

A benign tumor arising from cells found within the dura mater would be termed a(n)

A) duroma.
B) glioma.
C) meningioma.
D) metastatic carcinoma.
E) astrocytoma.

Question 17

Malignant brain tumors are deadly because such tumors

A) can increase the flow of cerebrospinal fluid thus causing hydrocephalus.
B) release glutamate.
C) give off cells that travel to other body areas and result in new tumors.
D) release glycine, which kills nearby cells.
E) can only be confirmed at autopsy.

Question 18

Malignant gliomas arise from ________ cells in adults.

A) pituitary
B) tumor initiating
C) glial
D) connective tissue
E) pineal gland

Question 19

The tumor found in Mrs. R. in the chapter anecdote was noted to be a(n)

A) meningioma.
B) pinealoma.
C) angioma.
D) metastatic oligodendrocytoma.
E) astrocytoma.

Question 20

________ is a mass of cells whose growth is uncontrolled and that serves no useful function in the body.

A) polyp
B) tumor
C) cyst
D) nodule
E) aneurism

Question 21

A hemorrhagic stroke involves ________ within the brain.

A) vasodilation
B) bleeding
C) an embolus
D) a thrombus
E) obstruction of blood flow

Question 22

A major cause of obstructive strokes is

A) the failure of weakened blood vessels in response to blood pressure.
B) malformed blood vessels.
C) intracranial bleeding.
D) high blood pressure.
E) a thrombus or an embolus.

Question 23

The cause of neuron cell death after a stroke usually involves

A) interruption of glycogen delivery to the cell.
B) reduced neuronal firing produced by tissue compression.
C) interruption of oxygen supplies to the nerve cell.
D) the loss of oxygen radicals within glial cells.
E) overstimulation of nerve cells by abnormally high synaptic levels of glutamate.

Question 24

During the ________ of a grand mal seizure, the person experiences a(n) _______.

A) tonic phase; contraction of all skeletal muscles
B) clonic phase; aura involving lights
C) clonic phase; contraction of all skeletal muscles
D) tonic phase; eye-rolling and facial grimaces
E) tonic phase; changes in consciousness

Question 25

Prolonged interruption of the blood supply to a region of the brain results in

A) hemorrhage.
B) hyperglycemia.
C) ischemia.
D) galactosemia.
E) vasodilation.

Question 26

Which of the following is true regarding strokes?

A) Hemorrhagic strokes are associated with tumor compression of nerve tissue.
B) The incidence of strokes is about 60,000 per year.
C) Hemorrhagic strokes are associated with bleeding within the heart.
D) The risk of stroke increases with age.
E) Ischemic strokes are related to excessive vasodilation of the brain blood vessels.

Question 27

Atherosclerosis involves

A) the movement of thrombi across the blood-brain barrier.
B) a buildup of plaque within glial cells.
C) surgery of the major brain blood vessels.
D) a buildup of plaque within arteries.
E) a shearing of the walls of arterial vessels.

Question 28

A thrombus

A) can be caused by infection in the heart.
B) is composed of debris that lodges in an artery.
C) can result in hemorrhagic stroke.
D) can consist of pieces of thrombi.
E) is a blood clot formed in a blood vessel.

Question 29

Which of the following most correctly describes the sequence of toxic events that occur in brain during a stroke?

A) increased blood flow -> activation of NA+/K+ transporters -> membrane hyperpolarization - > GABA release -> excessive accumulation of extracellular CA++
B) reduced blood flow -> inactivation of Na+/K+ transporters -> membrane depolarization -> glutamate release -> excessive accumulation of intracellular CA++
C) reduced blood flow ->activation of Na+/K+ transporters -> membrane hyperpolarization -> DA release -> excessive accumulation of intracellular CL-
D) reduced blood flow -> inactivation of Na+/K+ transporters -> membrane hyperpolarization - > GABA release -> excessive accumulation of intracellular CA++
E) increased blood flow -> reduced accumulation of extracellular CA++ -> membrane hyperpolarization - > GABA release

Question 30

An ischemic stroke involves ________ within the brain.

A) vasodilation
B) bleeding
C) shearing of blood vessels
D) an infection of glial cells
E) obstruction of blood flow

Question 31

The most common cause of seizure disorder is

A) sudden withdrawal from barbiturate abuse.
B) exposure to toxic chemicals.
C) drug overdose.
D) scarring produced by damage within the brain.
E) sudden withdrawal from opiate abuse.

Question 32

The ________ seizure disorder is often seen in children and is characterized by a spell of absence.

A) complex
B) petit mal
C) simple partial
D) atonic
E) dystonic

Question 33

Removal of brain tissue in or around a seizure focus

A) can result in death.
B) results in a temporary cessation of seizure activity.
C) enhances seizure activity.
D) has no effect on the patient.
E) can improve psychological functioning.

Question 34

An aura involving the recall of a childhood memory would most likely reflect seizure activity within the

A) occipital lobes.
B) parietal association cortex.
C) temporal lobes.
D) primary motor cortex.
E) primary auditory cortex.

Question 35

The mode of action for most anticonvulsant drugs involves

A) enhancing the effectiveness of inhibitory synapses in the brain.
B) blocking acetylcholine receptors.
C) damping the outflow of the basal ganglia.
D) directly inactivating motor neurons.
E) blocking GABA receptors.

Question 36

A To prevent the occurrence of another stroke, his physicians would most likely

A) administer an anticoagulant.
B) administer drugs that lower blood pressure.
C) cut out the embolus using invasive surgery.
D) use deep brain stimulation to facilitate neuron regrowth.
E) administer massive doses of antibiotics.

Question 37

A seizure that starts within the parietal lobe would be expected to produce an aura that involves

A) feelings of being on "pins and needles."
B) hallucinations that include old memories.
C) flashes of light or color.
D) perceptions of a strong odor.
E) muscle twitches.

Question 38

A person who has a series of seizures without regaining consciousness would be classified as having

A) psychic seizure disorder.
B) simple partial seizure disorder.
C) status epilepticus.
D) petit mal disorder.
E) generalized seizure disorder.

Question 39

Hemorrhagic strokes cause brain damage by

A) exerting pressure on surrounding tissue.
B) decreasing the production of cerebrospinal fluid.
C) spreading infection throughout the brain.
D) increasing the production of cerebrospinal fluid.
E) inducing the release of GABA.

Question 40

Which of the following is a therapy for ischemic stroke, but only if given soon after the onset of symptoms?

A) infusion of free radicals into the affected brain region
B) administration of tPA to dissolve blood clots
C) drugs that inactivate GABA receptors
D) drugs that stimulate glutamate receptors
E) drugs that promote inflammatory reactions

Question 41

________ is associated with the consumption of tainted human flesh.

A) Kuru
B) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
C) Down syndrome
D) Phenylketonuria
E) Parkinson's disease

Question 42

The etiology of Down syndrome involves

A) abnormal cell division of a sperm from the father.
B) abnormal cell division of an egg from the mother.
C) incomplete union of the ovum and sperm.
D) two sperm impregnating the ovum.
E) a metabolic disorder of the systems that rid the brain of waste.

Question 43

Phenylketonuria is caused by

A) an inherited lack of an enzyme that produces tyrosine.
B) accumulation of waste products in the brain.
C) neurofibrillary tangles.
D) toxic chemicals released by a virus.
E) leakage from glutamate into the brain blood system.

Question 44

Which of the following is true of Down syndrome (DS)?

A) The brains of DS people are approximately 10 percent lighter than those of normal people.
B) A DS person may be exceptionally talented in a particular area in spite of general mental retardation.
C) People with DS have no distinguishing physical characteristics.
D) People with DS often fail to learn to talk.
E) The incidence of DS is 1 in 10,000 in the United States.

Question 45

The prevention of mental retardation in a child suffering phenylketonuria requires early diagnosis and

A) life-long supplemental phenylalanine.
B) daily injections of the precursor of phenylalanine.
C) a diet low in phenylalanine.
D) a diet low in tyrosine.
E) a complete blood transfusion at birth.

Question 46

A dangerous blockage of the coronary arteries by atherosclerotic plaque can be opened by

A) placing a stent within the blocked artery segment.
B) administering the drug tPA.
C) infusion of glutamate into the affected artery.
D) administering the drug desmoteplase.
E) administering the drug inositol.

Question 47

________ is a metabolic disorder in which an infant requires larger-than-normal amounts of vitamin B6 to avoid neurological symptoms.

A) Parkinson's disease
B) Tay-Sachs disease
C) Phenylketonuria
D) Pyridoxine dependency
E) Huntington's chorea

Question 48

The most serious effect of fetal alcohol syndrome is

A) an unusual facial appearance.
B) malformation of limbs.
C) mental retardation.
D) that such babies are likely to develop alcoholism as adults.
E) exaggerated startle response.

Question 49

A physical exam of the mother using ________ can diagnose the presence of Down syndrome in her fetus before birth.

A) amniocentesis
B) fMRI
C) ultrasound
D) MRI
E) a CAT scan

Question 50

Failure to diagnose and treat pyridoxine dependency or galactosemia can result in damage to the

A) cerebral white matter.
B) spinal cord.
C) meninges of the brain.
D) lysosomes contained within neurons.
E) convolutions of the surface of the brain.

Question 51

The brain of an individual with Down syndrome would be expected to differ from that of a brain of a normal individual in that

A) the superior temporal gyrus is larger in the left hemisphere of the Down syndrome brain.
B) the frontal lobes are larger in the Down syndrome brain.
C) the Down syndrome brain is 10% heavier than the normal brain.
D) the Down syndrome brain has simpler and smaller gyri and sulci.
E) the superior temporal gyrus is larger in the right hemisphere of the Down syndrome brain.

Question 52

A key sign that a child born to a mother who consumed alcohol during the pregnancy suffers from fetal alcohol syndrome involves

A) brain swelling.
B) an immature immune system.
C) abnormal facial development.
D) deficient muscle development.
E) an enlarged skull in the affected infant.

Question 53

A child that has Tay-Sachs disease would be expected to show

A) exaggerated startle responses, listlessness, and irritability.
B) impaired functioning of the blood-brain barrier.
C) an enlarged head at birth.
D) mental retardation.
E) neurofibrillary tangles that develop at about 4 years of age.

Question 54

A baby that has fetal alcohol syndrome would be expected to

A) be smaller than average in size.
B) have abnormal reflexes.
C) have a very large head.
D) be hyperactive.
E) develop more rapidly than his or her normal peers.

Question 55

The mental retardation shown in Down syndrome is caused by

A) the absence of the 21st chromosome.
B) a buildup of waste products in the neurons of brain.
C) a genetic error involving a missing vital enzyme.
D) the presence of an extra 21st chromosome.
E) an inherited faulty gene.

Question 56

A key pathway through which alcohol disrupts normal brain development is by interfering with

A) enzymes that break down cell wastes.
B) the conversion of phenylalanine into tyrosine.
C) the processes that terminate the formation of new neurons.
D) a protein that helps guide neuronal growth in the developing brain.
E) the function of glial membrane sodium-potassium transporters.

Question 57

Which of the following is true of transmissible spongiform encephalopathy (TSE)?

A) Down syndrome is a form of TSE.
B) In TSE, the ventricles are constricted.
C) PKU is a form of TSE that involves eating human flesh.
D) TSEs are caused by simple proteins termed prions.
E) Parkinson's disease is caused by eating human flesh.

Question 58

The term congenital refers to a

A) genetic metabolic error of the brain.
B) condition present at birth.
C) condition in which a fetus has both male and female internal reproductive structures.
D) neurological condition that appears during puberty.
E) condition that is inherited from the mother.

Question 59

Whether a fetus will be born with Down syndrome is related to

A) the age of the mother at the time of pregnancy.
B) the presence of specific amino acids in the mother's diet.
C) over-exposure to toxins during pregnancy.
D) ingestion of drugs and alcohol by the father prior to conception.
E) the uterine environment during pregnancy.

Question 60

Brain development in a fetus whose mother contracted German measles early in the pregnancy is impaired because the rubella virus

A) alters chromosome number.
B) induces an error of metabolism within brain cells.
C) produces toxins that interfere with the chemical signals that control brain development.
D) deletes key enzymes within the brain.
E) alters neurotransmitter release in the neural tube.

Question 61

The principal output of the basal ganglia is from the

A) internal division of the globus pallidus.
B) internal capsule.
C) lateral caudate nucleus.
D) external division of the globus pallidus.
E) dorsal root ganglion.

Question 62

The standard drug treatment for Parkinson's disease is the daily administration of

A) d-amphetamine.
B) L-DOPA.
C) atropine.
D) haloperidol.
E) apomorphine.

Question 63

The specific cause for Huntington's disease may involve _______ that kills neurons.

A) inclusion bodies
B) elongated stretches of glutamine
C) suppression of apoptosis
D) excessive release of glutamate.
E) loss of L-DOPA function

Question 64

Surgical removal of the ________ can alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson's disease.

A) thalamus
B) putamen
C) basal ganglia
D) globus pallidus.
E) primary motor cortex

Question 65

Which of the following represents a therapy for Parkinson's disease?

A) daily administration of amphetamine or cocaine
B) administration of haloperidol
C) stereotaxically guided destruction of the internal division of the globus pallidus
D) daily administration of the insecticide paraquat
E) stereotaxically-guided destruction of the external division of the globus pallidus

Question 66

The key symptom of Parkinson's disease is

A) motor convulsions.
B) muscle flaccidity.
C) nausea on standing up.
D) slowness of movement.
E) ballistic movements of the arms.

Question 67

The term dementia refers to

A) loss of neurons in the cells surrounding the third ventricle.
B) deterioration of intellectual abilities caused by an organic brain disorder.
C) altered cognitive function associated with schizophrenia.
D) demyelinization by autoimmune responses.
E) impaired cell functioning caused by viral toxins.

Question 68

The primary cognitive deficit associated with Alzheimer's disease involves

A) initial confusion that later develops into a memory impairment.
B) a difficulty in controlling the arms and legs.
C) a progressive loss of memory.
D) impaired appetite function.
E) slowing of cognitive function.

Question 69

The appearance of a disease in a person who has no family history of that disorder would be classified as a ________ case.

A) a toxic gain of function
B) recessive
C) a toxic loss of function
D) congenital
E) sporadic

Question 70

Which of the following is true of Huntington's disease?

A) The disease involves degeneration of the substantia nigra.
B) Huntington's disease is characterized by slow movement and tremors.
C) The disease involves degeneration of the caudate nucleus and the putamen.
D) The disease can be cured with surgery.
E) L-DOPA is the treatment for the disease.

Question 71

The cause of Parkinson's disease has been traced to

A) overproduction of GABA within the caudate nucleus.
B) loss of cholinergic neurons within the frontal cortex.
C) overproduction of dopamine within the basal ganglia.
D) degeneration of dopamine neurons within the nigrostriatal system.
E) the presence of an extra 21st chromosome.

Question 72

________ is a degenerative disorder involving a defective gene on chromosome 4 that results in jerky uncontrollable movements.

A) Down syndrome
B) Tay-Sachs disease
C) Meissner's syndrome
D) Huntington's disease
E) Parkinson's disease

Question 73

A key distinction is that Parkinson's disease ________, whereas Huntington's disease ________.

A) symptoms can be cured with drug treatment or surgery; symptoms can be treated with drugs
B) usually occurs in the twenties and thirties; almost always occurs in the fifties and sixties
C) is characterized by a poverty of movement; is characterized by uncontrollable ones
D) is a hereditary disorder; does not usually have genetic origins
E) symptoms cannot be treated; symptoms can be cured with drug treatment or surgery

Question 74

Which of the following is a hereditary disorder that causes degeneration of GABA- secreting neurons in the putamen of the basal ganglia?

A) Huntington's disease
B) Tay-Sachs disease
C) Meissner's syndrome
D) Down syndrome
E) Parkinson's disease

Question 75

________ is caused by degeneration of dopamine-secreting neurons of the substantia nigra.

A) Encephalitis
B) Parkinson's disease
C) Kuru
D) Multiple sclerosis
E) Acute anterior poliomyelitis

Question 76

A genetic disorder caused by a mutation that fails to produces a protein that is required for normal health would be classified as

A) a toxic gain of function.
B) recessive.
C) a toxic loss of function.
D) congenital.
E) degenerative.

Question 77

A therapy for Parkinson's disease that alters MAO-B activity in nerve cells involves administration of

A) deprenyl.
B) paraquat.
C) haloperidol.
D) L-DOPA.
E) pimozide.

Question 78

A genetic disorder caused by a mutation that produces a protein with toxic consequences would be classified as

A) a toxic gain of function.
B) recessive.
C) a toxic loss of function.
D) congenital.
E) degenerative.

Question 79

A unique genetic cause of Parkinson's disease has been traced to

A) a dominant mutation of a gene on chromosome 4.
B) overproduction of GABA within the caudate nucleus.
C) a recessive gene located on chromosome 8.
D) loss of cholinergic neurons within the frontal cortex.
E) overproduction of dopamine within the basal ganglia.

Question 80

Deep brain stimulation of the ________ can alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson's disease.

A) thalamus
B) putamen
C) basal ganglia
D) subthalamic nucleus.
E) primary motor cortex