Deck 2: Evolutionary and Genetic Influences on Behavior

Question 1

Who is more likely to share an identical set of genes?

A) identical or monozygotic twins
B) fraternal or dizygotic twins
C) brother and sister siblings
D) brothers and brother siblings

Answer 1

identical or monozygotic twins

Question 2

Which of the following is NOT a reason the public has rejected the theory of evolution?

A) It is difficult to believe that humans and apes may share a common ancestor.
B) The idea of natural selection is difficult to comprehend and understand.
C) People are offended by the idea that natural laws shape living organisms.
D) The data do not support the theory of evolution.

Answer 2

The data do not support the theory of evolution.

Question 3

How many pairs of chromosomes does the typical human cell contain?

A) 46
B) 23
C) 2
D) 20,000-30,000

Answer 3

23

Question 4

Approximately how many protein-coding genes does the human cell contain?

A) 20,000-30,000
B) 100,000-150,000
C) 10-20
D) 23 or 46

Question 5

Which of the following human cells contain 23 rather than 46 chromosomes?

A) egg cells
B) sperm cells
C) both egg and sperm cells
D) none of the above; all cells contain 46 chromosomes

Question 6

Which of the following is the best statement regarding nature/nurture interactions?

A) Nature, or genetics, is more important than nurture, or environmental factors.
B) Nurture, or environmental factors, are more important than nature, or genetics.
C) Nature and nurture interact in a highly complex manner.
D) None of the above. Scientists cannot distinguish between nature and nurture effects.

Question 7

The nucleus, chromosomes, and DNA compose most of the __________ in the human body?

A) genetics
B) cells
C) neurons
D) proteins

Question 8

Eugenics and social Darwinism __________.

A) are examples of inappropriate applications of evolutionary theory
B) are well-accepted applications of evolutionary theory
C) are well-documented applications supporting evolution
D) are useful only when applied to aspects of animal evolution

Question 9

A gene refers to __________.

A) the section of a DNA molecule that describes the structure of a protein together with its control sequences
B) the single long molecule of deoxyribonucleic acid
C) the complete set of detailed instructions for making structural proteins that give a cell its shape
D) the set of 46 chromosomes contained in a human cell

Question 10

The section of a DNA molecule that describes the structure of a protein together with its control sequences is called a __________.

A) double helix
B) gene
C) chromosome
D) protein

Question 11

The copy of the same 46 chromosomes contained in most of one's cells is collectively called the __________.

A) genome
B) phenotype
C) chromosome set
D) protein set

Question 12

A typical human cell has __________ genes as the roundworm (C. elegans).

A) about 2 times more
B) about 100 times more
C) about the same number of
D) about half as many

Question 13

Which of the following is NOT a possible pairing of the subunits of DNA?

A) A-T; C-G; A-T
B) C-G; C-G; A-T
C) C-G; A-G; A-T
D) A-T; C-G; C-G

Question 14

The expression of some genes within one cell, but a different expression of the same set of genes within another cell refers to __________.

A) gene expression
B) phenotype
C) genome biochemistry
D) protein activation

Question 15

Which of the following is important for gene expression?

A) the set of genes a cell contains
B) the environment outside of a cell
C) the biochemistry within a cell
D) all of the above

Question 16

The idea that parents could pass on traits they had gained over the course of a single lifetime is __________.

A) an easily provable tenet of evolution
B) erroneous and led to the rejection of evolution by some individuals
C) erroneous as it takes two generations to pass on a trait
D) correct and provides data supporting evolution

Question 17

Which of the following is NOT a subunit of DNA?

A) guanine
B) cytosine
C) nadenine
D) thymine

Question 18

Which of the following are contained in most human cells?

A) chromosomes
B) nucleus
C) DNA
D) all of the above

Question 19

Which of the following is NOT a modern scientific advancement that emerged from applications of evolutionary theory?

A) explaining why some individuals do not respond well to antidepressant medication
B) explaining why some individuals have difficulty with reasoning problems while others do not
C) explaining why men and women may react differently to a partner's sexual infidelity
D) explaining how IQ is directly inherited

Question 20

Which of the following is likely to affect gene expression in humans?

A) temperature
B) stimulation of a cell
C) social interactions
D) all of the above

Question 21

If a person with two different alleles has a phenotype that is an intermediate between the two types favored by each allele on its own, the trait may be considered to __________.

A) be codominant
B) have incomplete dominance
C) be recessive
D) have dominance

Question 22

Gregor Mendel __________.

A) wrote the Origin of Species
B) was one of the first to write about the laws of genetic inheritance
C) believed that parents could pass on traits they had gained over the course of a single lifetime
D) fought against the theory of evolution

Question 23

If an individual is homozygous for a particular gene, __________.

A) the individual received that same identical gene from both parents
B) the individual received different genes from the mother and the father
C) the gene must be dominant
D) the gene must be recessive

Question 24

If an individual is heterozygous for a particular gene, __________.

A) the individual received that same identical gene from both parents
B) the individual received different genes from the mother and the father
C) the gene must be dominant
D) the gene must be recessive

Question 25

Carolyn has an allele for red hair and an allele for brown hair. She has brown hair. Which of the following statements is true about Carolyn?

A) Carrie is heterozygous for the hair color gene.
B) Carrie's phenotype does not match her genotype.
C) The gene for red hair must be recessive.
D) All of the above.

Question 26

A brother and sister born from the same parents __________.

A) are highly likely to share the same set of 46 chromosomes
B) are unlikely to share any of the same 46 chromosomes
C) Will share approximately 50% of the same chromosomes
D) will have identical chromosomes except for the sex chromosomes

Question 27

Carrie has two alleles for red hair, and she has red hair. Which of the following statements is true about Carrie?

A) Carrie is homozygous for the hair color gene.
B) Carrie's phenotype matches her genotype.
C) The gene for red hair must be dominant.
D) Both a and b.

Question 28

A gene is said to be dominant. What is the likelihood that the trait controlled by that gene will be expressed?

A) The trait has a high likelihood of being expressed.
B) The trait has a low likelihood of being expressed.
C) The trait will be expressed only if its paired gene is identical.
D) The trait cannot be expressed.

Question 29

If an individual changes his diet because it is discovered he has phenylketonuria (PKU), then one can conclude that although he had the __________ for PKU, it did not lead to the __________ of retardation.

A) genotype; phenotype
B) phenotype; genotype
C) dominant gene; recessive trait
D) recessive gene; dominant trait

Question 30

Which of the following is NOT a trait based on a distinct set of recessive trait gene pairings?

A) baldness
B) red-green color blindness
C) high susceptibility to poison ivy
D) intelligence

Question 31

Which of the following is NOT an example of polygenic inheritance?

A) phenylketonuria or PKU
B) schizophrenia
C) bipolar disorders
D) intelligence

Question 32

The serotonin transporter gene is an example of a __________ gene effect.

A) codominant
B) incomplete dominance
C) recessive
D) dominance

Question 33

Phenylketonuria __________.

A) is the result of a single recessive gene pairing
B) may result in mental retardation
C) results in the inability to metabolize phenylalanine
D) all of the above

Question 34

Genotype refers to __________.

A) the specific genes of an organism
B) what way an organism looks
C) the specific location of a gene
D) the specific way a gene interacts with the environment

Question 35

Blood type is an example of __________ gene effects.

A) codominant
B) incomplete dominance
C) recessive
D) incomplete recessive

Question 36

Phenotype refers to __________.

A) the specific genes of an organism
B) the way an organism looks
C) the specific location of a gene
D) the specific way a gene interacts with the environment

Question 37

The locus of a gene refers to __________.

A) its specific position within a chromosome
B) the location of the cell it occupies
C) its specific action
D) its partner gene

Question 38

If both genes in a pair of genes affect the phenotype, then the alleles may be considered __________.

A) codominant
B) incomplete dominant
C) phenotypical
D) genotypical

Question 39

A gene is said to be recessive. What is the likelihood that the trait controlled by that gene will be expressed?

A) The trait has a high likelihood of being expressed.
B) The trait will absolutely be expressed.
C) The trait will be expressed only if the paired gene is identical.
D) The trait cannot be expressed.

Question 40

Polygenic inheritance refers to __________.

A) how a trait is influenced by many genes
B) the fact that we show many different inherited traits
C) how both environment and genetics influence a trait simultaneously
D) all of the above

Question 41

Which of the following was a substantial obstacle(s) in Darwin's thinking that prevented him from further developing his theory?

A) how organisms within a population differed from one another
B) how traits could be transmitted from one generation to another
C) which organism was the first original organism
D) both a and b

Question 42

Approximately what percentage of scientists accept the theory of evolution?

A) none
B) 80%
C) 40%
D) Most scientists accept the theory.

Question 43

According to your book, why might a ground squirrel sound an alarm cry when it sees a predator?

A) to warn other ground squirrels, thus protecting the collection of ground squirrel genes
B) to confuse the predator and lure the predator away from its nest
C) to frighten the predator away
D) both b and c

Question 44

The idea that anything natural is good or that more recently evolved traits are better than traits evolved earlier is called __________.

A) naturalistic fallacy
B) evolutionary fallacy
C) trait inheritance
D) evolution

Question 45

Which of the following may be used as scientific evidence to support the theory of evolution?

A) understanding how genetic mutations occur
B) how genes influence organisms' traits
C) fossil evidence
D) all of the above

Question 46

Which of the following is NOT a reason for variation in genotypes?

A) the enormous size of an organism's genome
B) lack of uniformity across individual organisms within a species
C) mutations
D) experiences of an individual organism

Question 47

Why might psychologists want to investigate evolutionary changes in humans?

A) to gain an understanding of human memory
B) to learn about the genetic roots of various mental disorders and diseases
C) to develop new medications for the treatment of psychological disorders and diseases
D) all of the above

Question 48

The process in which traits that are more suited for survival are more likely to be passed on to offspring than traits less suited for survival is called __________.

A) dominance
B) natural selection
C) genetic drift
D) genetic fitness

Question 49

Evolution can be said to focus on __________ causes.

A) proximate
B) ultimate
C) natural
D) specific

Question 50

Which of the following is NOT true regarding Charles Darwin?

A) He was an English naturalist.
B) His hobbies included collecting beetles.
C) He spent long periods of time observing animals and plants during his voyage on the SS Beagle.
D) He majored in biology in college.

Question 51

Which of the following is an example of how scientists may watch the process of evolution unfolding?

A) changes in the body armor of the Lake Washington stickleback
B) fossil evidence discovered by archeologists
C) laboratory experiments with the crystal jellyfish
D) both a and c

Question 52

Which of the following statements best describes Darwin's theory of evolution?

A) All life on Earth had a shared origin, so that all creatures descend from an ancient common ancestor.
B) All life on Earth is related to one another because of natural selection.
C) The most fit among creatures always survive and the weakest always die out.
D) Animals survive because of their best physical features.

Question 53

Which of the following is NOT true of a mutation?

A) It is an error in replication of the DNA.
B) It is always damaging to the organism.
C) It happens randomly.
D) It contributes to the genetic diversity of a species.

Question 54

Approximately what percentage of the general population accepts the theory of evolution?

A) none
B) 80%
C) 40%
D) Most people accept the theory.

Question 55

Which of the following is an example of natural selection?

A) A breeder selects the darkest colored golden retrievers from each litter to pair and continue breeding.
B) A dark-colored fish is more likely to survive, and thus more likely to reproduce than a light-colored fish.
C) A dog learns to open the door to escape, and her pups learn it too.
D) All of the above.

Question 56

Proximate causes refer to the __________ while ultimate causes refer to __________.

A) mechanisms within an organism's life; mechanisms within a population over many generations
B) mechanisms within a population over many generations; mechanisms within an organism's life
C) local cause of a trait; the final causation for a trait
D) the final causation for a trait; the local cause of a trait

Question 57

A wide-billed finch may be better suited for survival than a narrow-billed finch because __________.

A) the wide mouth would better enable the finch to crack open seeds than a narrow bill
B) the wide bill would provide a better competitive advantage
C) the wide bill must be a dominant trait
D) both a and b

Question 58

Which animal was highly influential in the development of Darwin's theory?

A) apes
B) tortoises
C) finches
D) beetles

Question 59

According to your book, why would a mother bird feign injury and move away from her nest when she has hatchlings?

A) The behavior protects the young hatchlings.
B) It is learned.
C) It appears to be an inherited ability that emerged over many generations.
D) Both a and c.

Question 60

Which of the following is NOT one of Darwin's three principles of evolution?

A) There must be variation among individuals within a population.
B) Certain of the variants must survive and reproduce at higher rates than others.
C) Traits associated with superior survival and reproduction must be passed from parents to offspring.
D) In all populations, only the best fit of individuals survives and reproduces.

Question 61

Which of the following best describe Charles Darwin's two main ideas?

A) natural selection and common ancestry
B) natural selection and genetic evolution
C) genetic evolution and common ancestry
D) behavioral evolution and genetic evolution

Question 62

According to the theory of evolution, behaviors emerging from natural selection should be __________ in form.

A) rigidly defined
B) flexible
C) highly stereotyped
D) mechanistic

Question 63

Why does natural selection favor flexibility in behavior?

A) Species evolve in highly changing environments.
B) Animals should be able to behave randomly to keep predators guessing about their behavior.
C) Animals should behave in highly flexible ways so that they increase the chance of emitting the best behavior in the environmental situation.
D) Both a and b.

Question 64

Which of the following is NOT an example of niche construction in humans?

A) building new shelters
B) finding new sources of food
C) creating social alliances
D) highly stereotyped fear behavior

Question 65

Evidence from animal studies suggests that other animals __________.

A) do not smile
B) show evidence for smiling behavior
C) show facial expressions that look like smiling, but are not
D) smile only in response to internal events

Question 66

In the study examining smiling, the facial expression of groups of athletes who received an award at the Paralympic games was examined. Which group showed smiling?

A) the blind group
B) the group that once had vision, but then became blind
C) the normally sighted group
D) all three groups showed nearly identical smiling

Question 67

A social smile is characterized by __________.

A) expression only when around others
B) changes in the shape of the mouth but not the eyes
C) use as a greeting
D) all of the above

Question 68

Niche construction refers to __________.

A) the process in which organisms make their nests, or niches
B) the process in which organisms, through their behaviors, alter their environments and thus create their own circumstances
C) the ability to make nests regardless of environments
D) the ability to maintain a behavior consistently across environments

Question 69

Surrender displays in mammals are an example of __________.

A) aggression responses
B) species-specific behaviors
C) vulnerability displays
D) species atypical behaviors

Question 70

Why might a scientist want to transfer genes between species?

A) to observe novel functions of that gene
B) to restore function as the result of a genetic defect
C) to increase the diversity of a species
D) all of the above

Question 71

Which of the following would likely NOT be affected by natural selection, according to Darwin?

A) an organism's structural traits
B) an organism's genetic traits
C) an organism's behavioral traits
D) an organism's physical environment

Question 72

The fact that babies blind since birth begin to smile at the same time as babies with normal vision suggests that __________.

A) smiling is a learned response
B) smiling occurs only if babies are around their parents
C) smiling is a species-general behavior
D) smiling occurs only if a baby is happy

Question 73

What is the common theme among the human expression of emotions, human intelligence, and human patterns of sexual preproduction?

A) All three may be used as examples of ultimate causes of natural selection.
B) Expression of emotions and intelligence are important components of reproduction.
C) Intelligence is a factor in how humans express emotions and their ability to successfully reproduce.
D) All three may be used as examples of the proximate causes of natural selection.

Question 74

Which of the following is NOT an example of evidence for common ancestry?

A) the high degree of overlap between the genome of birds and crocodiles
B) the close relationship in genomes between whales and hippos
C) the high degree of similarity in bone structure across mammals
D) evidence showing that man is highly unique compared to other apes

Question 75

Data from the experiments conducted on the New Guinea tribe suggest that the expression of emotions is likely to be __________.

A) innate
B) learned
C) culturally specific
D) unknown in New Guinea tribesmen

Question 76

Which of the following is NOT likely to be part of an animal's phenotype?

A) personality
B) intelligence
C) behavioral disposition
D) none of the above; all are part of an animal's phenotype

Question 77

In nonhumans, what is a common function of the social smile?

A) aggression
B) diffusing or avoiding a conflict
C) indication of pleasure
D) all of the above

Question 78

When do most babies begin to socially smile?

A) by 1 month of age
B) by 6 months of age
C) from birth
D) by 1 year

Question 79

An expressive smile is characterized by __________.

A) expression even when others are not around
B) changes in both the shape of the mouth and the shape of the upper face and eyes
C) when an animal or human experiences pleasure
D) all of the above

Question 80

A species-specific behavior is one that __________.

A) is exhibited by all members of a species
B) only occurs in single species
C) forms an aggressive response
D) communicates needs to other animals