Deck 51: Defences Against Disease

Question 1

Which statement describes innate immunity?

A)It has memory of prior exposure to an organism.
B)It involves a variety of chemicals, including defensins and complement.
C)It does not involve a variety of cells, including phagocytes and NK cells.
D)It must be primed by the presence of antigens.

Answer 1

B

Question 2

What did Edward Jenner inject individuals with and why?

A)with chickenpox to protect them from smallpox
B)with cowpox to protect them from smallpox
C)with smallpox to protect them from chickenpox
D)with cowpox to protect them from chickenpox

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Which of the following is involved in the body's secondary immune defence?

A)the acidity of stomach
B)the lysozyme
C)the complement system
D)the combination of digestive enzymes of the small intestine

Answer 3

C

Question 4

What does the enzyme lysozyme offer protection from?

A)bacteria
B)viruses
C)worms
D)protists

Question 5

What are the major phagocytic cells in the body?

A)monocytes and mast cells
B)macrophages and neutrophils
C)macrophages and monocytes
D)monocytes and basophils

Question 6

The three lines of defence against invasion are: 1) adaptive immune system, 2) physical barriers, and 3) innate immune system. Which sequence of numbers places the three lines of defence in order, from earliest to latest?

A)3, 2, 1
B)2, 1, 3
C)2, 3, 1
D)3, 1, 2

Question 7

Which set of terms refer to cells that can serve as antigen-presenting cells?

A)macrophages, basophils, and B cells
B)macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells
C)macrophages, T cells, and basophils
D)B cells, T cells, and basophils

Question 8

Which term is most characteristic of innate immunity?

A)clonal selection
B)specificity
C)phagocytosis
D)gene rearrangement

Question 9

Which of the following is a characteristic of the acquired immune response?

A)memory
B)lack of ability to distinguish self from nonself
C)ability to respond to millions of different antigens
D)nonspecificity

Question 10

Which term is another name for adaptive immunity?

A)passive immunity
B)hidden immunity
C)latent immunity
D)acquired immunity

Question 11

Which molecules are correctly matched with their source?

A)interferons: virus-infected cells
B)interleukins: cytotoxic T cells
C)immunoglobulins: T cells
D)histamines: B cells

Question 12

How is adaptive immunity different from innate immunity?

A)Adaptive immunity is not specific, while innate immunity is.
B)Adaptive immunity is immediate, while innate immunity is not.
C)Adaptive immunity does not have memory, while innate immunity does.
D)Adaptive immunity is specific, while innate immunity is not.

Question 13

Which of the following defend against both bacteria and viruses?

A)plasma cells
B)NK cells
C)interferons
D)cytotoxic T cells

Question 14

How many people are now infected by acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), and what is the forecast?

A)Twenty million people are infected; however, the number is decreasing because of effective antibiotic treatments.
B)Forty million people are infected, and climbing.
C)Forty million people are infected; however, the number is decreasing because of effective antibiotic treatments.
D)Forty million people are infected; however, the number is decreasing because of an effective vaccination campaign.

Question 15

What does complement system refer to?

A)a set of specific antibodies
B)a set of specific defence proteins
C)a set of specific antibiotics
D)a set of specific lymphocytes

Question 16

The term immunity comes from the Latin immunis. What does immunis mean?

A)attack
B)protect
C)cow
D)exempt

Question 17

Which sentence best describes the function of histamine?

A)It reduces tissue swelling.
B)It causes blood vessels to contract.
C)It causes an outward flow of fluids from the capillaries.
D)It causes capillaries to lose their permeability.

Question 18

Suppose that a girl accidentally steps on an old board and a nail goes through her shoe and skin, causing a deep puncture wound. Which nonspecific defence mechanism will come to her rescue?

A)natural killer cells
B)acidic skin secretions
C)inflammation
D)epithelial cells with cilia

Question 19

Suppose that you had a cold last month, and you caught another one this month from your brother. Which of the following explains why you caught a new cold?

A)Your antigen-presenting cells did not recognize the second cold virus.
B)The two cold viruses are significantly different.
C)Memory cells were not formed as a response to the first cold.
D)The antibodies formed as a response to the first cold were degraded.

Question 20

Which of the following are most responsible for the symptoms of inflammation?

A)cytotoxic T cells
B)neutrophils
C)mast cells
D)eosinophils

Question 21

In the figure, if an antibody serves as a B-cell receptor, by which region number will it bind to the host cell membrane?

A)6
B)3
C)2
D)1

Question 22

In the figure, which number indicates the region that determines the class of antibody?

A)1
B)2
C)4
D)5

Question 23

How do B-cell receptors differ from antibodies?

A)B-cell receptors include a transmembrane domain.
B)B-cell receptors do not contain heavy chains.
C)B-cell receptors bind antigen.
D)B-cell receptors include a variable region.

Question 24

In the figure, which number indicates the constant region of a heavy chain?

A)1
B)2
C)3
D)5

Question 25

What is the role of interferons?

A)to prevent entry of viruses into cells
B)to bind iron and make it unavailable for bacteria and viruses
C)to block the replication of viruses within cells
D)to make holes through bacterial cell membranes

Question 26

In the figure, which number indicates the constant region of a light chain?

A)5
B)4
C)3
D)1

Question 27

In the figure, which number indicates the variable region of a light chain?

A)1
B)2
C)3
D)5

Question 28

What does an antibody molecule consist of?

A)a total of four polysaccharide chains
B)a total of four polypeptide chains
C)a total of two polysaccharide chains
D)a total of four phospholipids chains

Question 29

Which molecules regulate defence responses via signal transduction pathways?

A)prostaglandins
B)histamines
C)opsonins
D)cytokines

Question 30

How are antibodies classified?

A)as carbohydrates
B)as immunoglobulins
C)as nucleoproteins
D)as lipids

Question 31

How is antibody-mediated immunity different from cell-mediated immunity?

A)Antibody-mediated immunity requires both B and T cells; cell-mediated immunity requires T cells but not B cells.
B)Antibody-mediated immunity is adaptive; cell-mediated immunity is not.
C)Antibody-mediated immunity requires T cells; cell-mediated immunity requires B cells.
D)Antibody-mediated immunity requires lymphocytes; cell-mediated immunity does not require lymphocytes.

Question 32

How do natural killer cells destroy target cells?

A)by releasing perforin, which creates holes in the cell membrane
B)by releasing histamine, which signals other blood cells to aggregate
C)by releasing antibiotics, which break down the cell membrane
D)by releasing antibodies, which break down the cell wall

Question 33

Which statement refers to the mouse?

A)Females give birth to offspring about 5 weeks after mating.
B)Its scientific name is Mus musculus.
C)It has been used to approve the "inheritance of acquired characters" hypothesis.
D)Knockout mice are those that carry a lethal allele.

Question 34

In the figure, which number indicates the antigen-binding site?

A)1
B)2
C)5
D)6

Question 35

How are B-cell receptors different from T-cell receptors?

A)B-cell receptors are bound to the cell membrane, while T-cell receptors are bound to the nuclear membrane.
B)B-cell receptors bind antigen, while T-cell receptors do not.
C)B-cell receptors have a more complex structure.
D)B-cell receptors have a more simple structure.

Question 36

How many B cells does each person have?

A)about 10 trillion
B)about 15 trillion
C)about 20 trillion
D)about 25 trillion

Question 37

Which of the following is a part of an antibody molecule?

A)no chain
B)light chain
C)antibody-binding site
D)epitope

Question 38

Which leukocytes are central to adaptive immunity?

A)neutrophils
B)mast cells
C)eosinophils
D)lymphocytes

Question 39

Antibody diversity is due to genetic influences on which region?

A)the variable region
B)the constant region
C)the hinge region
D)the light chain

Question 40

In the figure, which number indicates the hinge region?

A)1
B)4
C)5
D)6

Question 41

Under what conditions does a CD4⁺ T cell bind to an antigen?

A)only if this antigen is presented on the surface of a B cell
B)only if this antigen is in a complex with a class II MHC protein
C)only if this antigen is presented on the surface of a T cell
D)only if this antigen is in a complex with a class III MHC protein

Question 42

Which of the following can be present in a vaccine?

A)a weakened pathogen
B)distilled water
C)an unmodified antigen from a pathogen
D)a modified antibody from a pathogen

Question 43

Which sequence of numbers places the steps of antibody-mediated immunity in the proper order? 1)Plasma cells secrete antibodies.
2)Helper T cells interact with B cells displaying the same antigen-MHC complex.
3)Contact with antigen.
4)Clones of B cells produced.
5)Fragmentation of antigen.

A)4, 3, 2, 1, 5
B)3, 5, 2, 4, 1
C)3, 2, 5, 1, 4
D)5, 3, 4, 2, 1

Question 44

Which of the following is an antibody class in humans?

A)IgY
B)IgD
C)IgI
D)IgF

Question 45

Which antibodies activate the complement system?

A)IgG and IgD
B)IgA and IgD
C)IgA and IgE
D)IgG and IgM

Question 46

How long does it take a typical primary response to reach an antigen peak?

A)about 4 months
B)about 2 weeks
C)about 4 to 5 days
D)about 1 to 2 days

Question 47

Where in the immune system do dendritic cells enter to alert T cells to threats?

A)in the liver
B)in the blood
C)in the bone marrow
D)in the lymph nodes

Question 48

Which phrase describes curve E in the figure?

A)a secondary response to the initial antigen
B)a secondary response to an antigen distinctly different from the initial antigen
C)a primary response to an antigen distinctly different from the initial antigen
D)a primary response to the initial antigen

Question 49

Which statement best describes the clonal selection theory?

A)An individual contains many types of B cells, and each secretes only one kind of antibody.
B)Each B cell can produce many types of antibodies, each of which reacts with a different antigen.
C)B cells differentiate into plasma cells and T cells.
D)An individual contains a single type of B cell.

Question 50

What do helper T cells secrete, which activate B cells and stimulate their proliferation?

A)antibodies
B)interleukins
C)allergens
D)antigens

Question 51

Which sentence best describes an epitope?

A)It is a complement protein that initiates lysis of target cells.
B)It is the part of an antigen that binds to and stimulates the production of an antibody.
C)It is too small to stimulate an immune response.
D)It is the antigen binding site of an antibody molecule.

Question 52

For curve B in the figure, when are B cells produced?

A)between weeks 2 and 4
B)between weeks 2 and 3
C)between weeks 0 and 2
D)between weeks 0 and 1

Question 53

How is active immunity different from passive immunity?

A)Only active immunity involves antibodies.
B)Active immunity is slower in onset and longer lived.
C)Active immunity is faster in onset and shorter lived.
D)Active immunity is faster in onset and longer lived.

Question 54

Suppose that a patient's serum is analyzed and found to have an abnormally low level of CD8 molecules. What does this suggest about the patient?

A)that the patient has insufficient numbers of helper T cells
B)that the patient has insufficient numbers of cytotoxic T cells
C)that the patient has insufficient numbers of macrophages
D)that the patient has insufficient numbers of B cells

Question 55

Which phrase describes curve D in the figure?

A)a primary response to an antigen distinctly different from the initial antigen
B)a secondary response to the initial antigen
C)a primary response to the initial antigen
D)a secondary response to an antigen distinctly different from the initial antigen

Question 56

Which of the following is a mechanism by which antibodies can protect the body from foreign antigens?

A)separation
B)stimulation of cytotoxic T cells
C)enhancement of phagocytosis
D)activation of T cells

Question 57

Which of the following is an example of active immunity?

A)resistance to chicken pox, acquired as a result of a childhood disease
B)passage of antibodies across blood
C)passage of antibodies across the placenta
D)passage of activated T cells from one individual to another

Question 58

In the figure, how long could the interval between points A and C be?

A)as long as several years
B)as long as several months
C)as long as several days
D)as long as several hours

Question 59

Which of the following is a specific defence mechanism?

A)acid secretions of the stomach
B)antibodies
C)mucus in the respiratory tract
D)skin

Question 60

Which immune system components have a principal role in curve D in the figure?

A)cytotoxic T cells
B)memory cells
C)NK cells
D)IgM and IgG

Question 61

Which sequence of numbers places the steps of an allergic response in the proper order? 1)
Allergic symptoms appear.
2)
Allergen binds with IgE.
3)
IgE combines with mast cell receptors.
4)
Mast cells release histamine.
5)
Plasma cells are sensitized.

A)5, 3, 2, 4, 1
B)1, 4, 5, 2, 3
C)5, 2, 4, 3, 1
D)1, 5, 2, 4, 3

Question 62

What happens in the case of immune privilege?

A)cells express FasL to reduce inflammation
B)cells suppress FasL to enlarge inflammation
C)cells express FasL to enlarge inflammation
D)cells suppress FasL to reduce inflammation

Question 63

What kind of response is allergy, and what is allergy a response to?

A)Allergy is an overactive response to cellular antigens.
B)Allergy is a normal level response to microbial antigens.
C)Allergy is an overactive response to environmental antigens.
D)Allergy is an underactive response to cellular antigens.

Question 64

What does a monoclonal antibody react against?

A)a single type of macromolecule
B)different antigens of the same organism
C)a single type of pathogen
D)a single antigenic determinant

Question 65

Which of the following have been found infected by Listeria monocytogenes in the past?

A)deli meats, cold cuts, hard cheese, and undercooked meats
B)deli meats, cold cuts, soft-ripened cheese, and undercooked meats
C)deli meats, cold cuts, soft-ripened cheese, and overcooked meats
D)deli meats, cold cuts, hard cheese, and overcooked meats

Question 66

Which statement describes sharks?

A)Sharks produce a steroid that appears to neutralize viruses with low efficiency.
B)Sharks produce antibodies capable of recognizing and binding specific antigens.
C)Sharks mount specific defences.
D)Sharks produce a peptide that appears to kill bacteria.

Question 67

Opsonins are antimicrobial peptides that play an important role in the innate immunity of the mammalian intestinal tract.

Question 68

How is rheumatoid arthritis caused?

A)by a deficiency of antibodies
B)by a self-attack on blood tissue
C)by an inability to respond to antigenic stimulation
D)by a self-attack on joints

Question 69

What do autoimmune diseases break down in the body?

A)the ability of the body to distinguish self from nonself
B)the ability of the body to produce memory cells
C)the ability of the body to produce antibodies
D)the ability of the body to distinguish between harmless and pathogenic microorganisms

Question 70

In the respiratory tract, pileated cells constantly sweep mucus with its trapped foreign matter.

Question 71

What are the primary targets for HIV?

A)B cells and helper T cells
B)helper T cells and macrophages
C)helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells
D)B cells and macrophages

Question 72

Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?

A)dermatitis
B)eczema
C)cancer
D)multiple sclerosis

Question 73

Why has the development of an HIV vaccine been very difficult?

A)because the virus produces enzymes that destroy the vaccine
B)because the virus is a DNA virus, and vaccines work against only RNA viruses
C)because the virus has no antigens to target
D)because the viral coat antigens change frequently as the virus replicates

Question 74

RNA interference (RNAi) defends primarily against viruses with single-stranded DNA genomes.

Question 75

How do the antibodies of sharks differ from those of mammals?

A)Shark antibodies have a different arrangement of embryonic gene segments.
B)Shark antibodies are produced without rearrangement of gene segments.
C)Shark antibodies do not have heavy chains.
D)Shark antibodies do not have light chains.

Question 76

Is universal vaccination required to eliminate diseases?

A)Theoretically, to eliminate specific diseases on a local or global level, everyone should be vaccinated.
B)Ideally, to eliminate specific diseases on a global level, everyone should be vaccinated.
C)Theoretically, to eliminate specific diseases on a local level, everyone should be vaccinated.
D)Ideally, to eliminate specific diseases on a local and global level, everyone should be vaccinated.

Question 77

Which of the following is required for HIV replication?

A)gp100
B)gp110
C)gp120
D)gp130

Question 78

How are B cells and T cells that react with self-antigens destroyed?

A)by phagocytosis
B)by apoptosis
C)by diakinesis
D)by endocytosis

Question 79

Under what conditions does a CD8⁺ T cell bind to an antigen?

A)only if this antigen is presented on the surface of a B cell
B)only if this antigen is in a complex with a class II MHC protein
C)only if this antigen is not in a complex with MHC proteins
D)only if this antigen is in a complex with a class I MHC protein

Question 80

Which behaviour is associated with a high risk of HIV transmission?

A)using drugs intravenously
B)being born to a healthy mother
C)being exposed to contaminated urine products
D)sharing bathroom facilities