Deck 3: Biology and Behaviour

Question 1

Which factor(s) is/are a direct contributor to a child's phenotype?

A) the child's genotype and the parents' phenotypes
B) the child's environment
C) the parents' genotypes
D) the child's genotype and environment

Answer 1

D

Question 2

The majority of human genes are devoted to making human beings:

A) male or female.
B) primates.
C) animals.
D) humans.

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Which factor is a direct contributor to a child's genotype?

A) the parents' genotypes
B) the parents' phenotypes
C) the child's phenotype
D) all of these factors

Answer 3

A

Question 4

As reported in the text, the current scientific understanding is that protein-coding genes make up approximately what percentage of the human genome?

A) 2
B) 20
C) 96
D) 100

Question 5

Which statement BEST characterizes current scientific thought on the human genome?

A) The greatest portion of the genome is made up of what is now considered "junk" DNA.
B) A small part of the genome is made up of protein-coding genes, and a much larger part regulates the activity of genes.
C) The genome is split about evenly between protein-coding genes and "junk" DNA.
D) The majority of the genome is made up of protein-coding genes, and a much smaller part is made up of noncoding DNA.

Question 6

Which statement about genetics is TRUE?

A) Genes are sections of chromosomes.
B) Chromosomes are sections of genes.
C) Chromosomes are sections of DNA.
D) DNA is a section of a gene.

Question 7

Which factor is a problem with the assumption that the similarities of twins in the Minnesota Study are due to genetic factors?

A) Not all of the twins were identical.
B) The environments of the twins may have been similar.
C) The adoptive parents and siblings were not compared to the biological twins and siblings.
D) All of these factors are problems with the assumption.

Question 8

The structure of DNA was identified by _____ and a colleague.

A) James Watson
B) Gregor Mendel
C) John Stuart Mill
D) Francis Galton

Question 9

The complete set of genes is referred to as a:

A) genome.
B) genesis.
C) genotype.
D) genode.

Question 10

Which statement about genetics is TRUE?

A) DNA is made up of two twisted chromosomes.
B) Genes are made up of two twisted chromosomes.
C) Chromosomes are made up of two twisted strands of DNA.
D) Genes are made up of two twisted strands of DNA.

Question 11

An important finding of the Minnesota Study of Twins Reared Apart is the extent of the:

A) similarity of the twins in a wide range of behavioural traits.
B) similarity of the twins in a wide range of physical traits.
C) differences between the twins on the vast majority of behavioural traits.
D) differences between the twins on many physical traits.

Question 12

Genes code for:

A) the production of proteins.
B) specific behaviours.
C) the construction of DNA.
D) traits.

Question 13

With the exception of the genes on the X and Y chromosomes, how many copies of each type of gene does an individual generally carry?

A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four

Question 14

The observable expression of an individual's genetic material is referred to as the individual's:

A) genome.
B) genotype.
C) phenotype.
D) environment.

Question 15

The current BEST estimate is that humans have approximately _____ genes.

A) 19,000
B) 35,000
C) 100,000
D) 275,000

Question 16

In a study of eminent men, Francis Galton concluded that achievement and talent are:

A) predominantly due to the environment.
B) predominantly due to heredity.
C) due to a combination of environment and heredity.
D) due to an interaction of environment and heredity.

Question 17

Genes are sections of:

A) chromosomes.
B) proteins.
C) genotypes.
D) phenotypes.

Question 18

Individuals receive _____ copy/copies of each gene from their mother.

A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four

Question 19

Pamela and her mother both have a strong aversion to cheese. Consider these paths. Path A: Pamela genetically inherited "cheese aversion" from her mother. Path B: Pamela's mother's own genetically inherited "cheese aversion" led her to create a "cheese aversion" environment in which Pamela developed. Path C: Pamela's mother's aversion to cheese caused Pamela's genotype to change. Which path(s) could have caused this similarity between Pamela and her mother in their strong aversion to cheese?

A) both paths A and B
B) both paths A and C
C) both paths B and C
D) path B only

Question 20

The mapping of the human genome has resulted in the insight that humans share a large proportion of their genes with all of the following EXCEPT:

A) bacteria.
B) bears.
C) beans.
D) butterflies.

Question 21

Regulator genes are responsible for:

A) ensuring that all of the sperm's genetic material is inserted into the egg.
B) activating and deactivating other genes.
C) determining which genes go into which cell.
D) establishing an embryo's sex.

Question 22

If an individual is heterozygous for a trait, he has inherited two _____ allele(s) for that trait.

A) of the same
B) different
C) dominant
D) recessive

Question 23

Geneticist Geri notices that a woman exhibits trait L. With certainty, she asks the woman, "Which of your parents also exhibits this trait?" The woman is surprised that Geri knew that one of her parents had to also display trait L. Knowing which fact would have cleared up the woman's confusion?

A) Trait L is governed by a dominant allele.
B) Trait L is governed by a recessive allele.
C) Trait L involves polygenic inheritance.
D) None of these would help to clear up the confusion.

Question 24

Crossing over refers to:

A) the development of female genitalia by an XY zygote.
B) a process by which two members of a chromosomal pair swap sections of DNA.
C) the random shuffling of the members of the 23 chromosomal pairs in the formation of egg and sperm.
D) a change in a section of DNA caused by environmental factors.

Question 25

Which sequence lists the CORRECT order of events in the development of a male?

A) Y chromosome encodes protein, production of testosterone, prenatal formation of testes
B) Y chromosome encodes protein, prenatal formation of testes, production of testosterone
C) prenatal formation of testes, Y chromosome encodes protein, production of testosterone
D) production of testosterone, Y chromosome encodes protein, prenatal formation of testes

Question 26

Which statement about gene expression is TRUE?

A) All genes possessed by an individual are expressed continuously.
B) All genes contained in a particular cell are expressed in that cell, but not all genes are contained in every cell.
C) Some genes are expressed for only a short period of the cell's life.
D) All genes possessed by an individual are expressed at some point in the individual's life.

Question 27

Different forms of a gene are referred to as:

A) alleles.
B) regulators.
C) recessive genes.
D) chromosomes.

Question 28

A recessive gene governs trait M. If a child exhibits trait M, then:

A) both her parents must have also exhibited trait M.
B) both her parents must have the recessive gene for trait M.
C) one of her parents has the gene for trait M.
D) the child has to have a dominant gene for trait M.

Question 29

Which factor is the basis of evolution?

A) random assortment of chromosomes
B) mutations
C) the process of crossing over
D) all of these factors

Question 30

Which statement about sex determination is TRUE?

A) The presence of a single X chromosome makes an individual female.
B) The presence of a single X chromosome makes an individual male.
C) The presence of a Y chromosome makes an individual female.
D) The presence of a Y chromosome makes an individual male.

Question 31

A male zygote has the _____ pattern of sex chromosomes.

A) XX
B) XY
C) YY
D) XY or YY

Question 32

Children share _____ of their genetic material with each of their grandparents.

A) one-half
B) one-third
C) one-quarter
D) one-eighth

Question 33

Which statement about genes is TRUE?

A) Genes that are turned off by regulator genes remain off for the remainder of the person's life.
B) Regulator genes function without input from the environment.
C) Genes belong to extensive networks of genes and do not function in isolation.
D) All of the statements are true.

Question 34

Developmental changes such as puberty, graying hair, and the reduced organ capacity that comes with age are caused in part by:

A) norm of reaction.
B) homozygous alleles.
C) polygenic inheritance.
D) regulator genes.

Question 35

Which statement about sex determination is TRUE?

A) The mother's egg always determines the sex of the offspring.
B) The father's sperm always determines the sex of the offspring.
C) Sometimes, it is the mother's egg and sometimes, it is the father's sperm that determines the sex of the offspring.
D) The mother's egg and the father's sperm jointly determine the sex of the offspring.

Question 36

Which statement about mutations is TRUE?

A) Mutations may make an individual more likely to survive long enough to produce offspring.
B) Mutations always occur in germ cells.
C) Mutations are the only source of genetic disease.
D) Mutations are created when two members of a pair of chromosomes swap pieces of DNA.

Question 37

The gene that codes for characteristic X has two alleles. Allele D is dominant, and allele r is recessive. If the father is homozygous for trait X with allele r and the mother is heterozygous for trait X, the chance that one of their offspring will exhibit form r for trait X is _____%.

A) 0
B) 25
C) 50
D) 75

Question 38

A change in a section of DNA that is the result of either a random, spontaneous error or environmental factors is referred to as:

A) polygenic inheritance.
B) a dominant-recessive pattern.
C) random assortment.
D) a mutation.

Question 39

In regard to the chromosomes that parents pass on to their offspring, parents pass on:

A) exact copies of their chromosomes to their offspring.
B) exact copies of their chromosomes to their offspring, except when a mutation occurs in the offspring's genes.
C) chromosomes that are constituted differently than their own because of random assortment and crossing over.
D) exact copies of their chromosomes to their offspring, but the genes are expressed differently because of patterns of dominance.

Question 40

_____ genes are expressed when an individual is heterozygous for a trait that follows a Mendelian inheritance pattern.

A) Recessive
B) Dominant
C) Polygenic
D) Allele

Question 41

The research on the effects of abusive parenting on children with a particular genotype demonstrated that:

A) child abuse is genetically inherited.
B) specific genetic risk factors can make some individuals more susceptible than others to particular environmental events.
C) some people have a greater extent of brain plasticity than do others.
D) children's phenotypes lead them to be active creators of their own environments.

Question 42

Down syndrome originates from:

A) chromosomal anomalies.
B) polygenic inheritance.
C) dominant-recessive patterns.
D) gene anomalies.

Question 43

All the outcomes that could theoretically result from a given genotype are referred to as the:

A) polygenic inheritance.
B) genotype-environment interaction.
C) phenotype.
D) norm of reaction.

Question 44

Many psychiatric and behavioural disorders are believed to involve:

A) gene anomalies.
B) polygenic inheritance.
C) Mendelian patterns.
D) chromosomal anomalies.

Question 45

Disease W is a recessive gene disease. Individuals with _____ will suffer from disease W.

A) one disease W gene and one healthy gene
B) two disease W genes
C) two healthy genes
D) two disease W genes and one healthy gene

Question 46

The manner in which individuals develop phenylketonuria is an example of:

A) genotype-environment interaction.
B) phenotype-environment interaction.
C) direct inheritance.
D) polygenic inheritance.

Question 47

Polygenic inheritance refers to:

A) a single gene affecting multiple traits.
B) the blending of genes in heterozygous individuals.
C) dominant-recessive patterns of inheritance.
D) the combined action of multiple genes.

Question 48

Phenylketonuria originates from:

A) a chromosomal anomaly.
B) sex-linked inheritance.
C) a dominant-recessive pattern.
D) polygenic inheritance.

Question 49

Kody, a boy, and Shakira, a girl, are brother and sister. They both inherit the same recessive allele for trait T on their X chromosome from their mother. What is the relative likelihood of Kody and Shakira expressing trait T?

A) Both Kody and Shakira are likely to express trait T.
B) Kody is more likely than is Shakira to express trait T.
C) Shakira is more likely than is Kody to express trait T.
D) Neither Kody nor Shakira is likely to express trait T.

Question 50

Identical twins Ilyse and Lauren both have a gene for trait H. The gene for trait H is expressed only when a child eats rice before the age of 2 years. Ilyse and Lauren are separated at birth, and Ilyse lives in Japan, where babies begin eating rice at an early age. Lauren lives in Canada, and she is not given rice before the age of 2 years. Ilyse develops trait H, whereas Lauren does not develop the trait. This is an example of:

A) polygenic inheritance.
B) genotype-environment interaction.
C) phenotypical variety.
D) the dominant-recessive pattern of inheritance.

Question 51

Which property is a NOT mechanism for genetic inheritance of disease?

A) combined action of multiple genes
B) dominant-recessive patterns
C) sex-linked inheritance
D) hormonal abnormalities

Question 52

Which statement about traits that involve polygenic inheritance is TRUE?

A) These traits are passed down from either the mother or the father directly to the offspring.
B) These traits are expressed only if an individual has a dominant gene.
C) Offspring have a one-in-four chance of possessing a trait if the parents possess it.
D) Many common human disorders are believed to result from interactions among multiple inherited genes, often in conjunction with environmental factors.

Question 53

A person who has a genetic disorder that results from a chromosomal anomaly possesses:

A) two recessive genes for the disorder.
B) extra or missing genes.
C) multiple genes that code for the disorder.
D) more or fewer than the normal number of chromosomes.

Question 54

Psychological traits, such as empathy, aggression, and shyness, follow the _____ type of inheritance pattern.

A) dominant-recessive
B) X-linked
C) polygenic
D) heterozygous

Question 55

Which statement about autism spectrum disorder is TRUE?

A) It is likely that autism spectrum disorder is caused by the MMR vaccine.
B) It is clear that the cause of autism spectrum disorder is solely genetic.
C) Approximately 1 in 1500 children in Canada have been diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder.
D) Autism spectrum disorder is known to be highly heritable.

Question 56

A disorder in which an individual is born with female genitalia but is found to be genetically male may be a result of:

A) a faulty dominant-recessive pattern.
B) Down syndrome.
C) a defect in regulator genes.
D) a sex-linked disorder.

Question 57

When several genes contribute to a particular phenotypic outcome, this is referred to as:

A) Mendelian inheritance.
B) a heterozygous inheritance.
C) multifactorial expression.
D) polygenic inheritance.

Question 58

Sex-linked disorders associated with the X chromosome are:

A) more likely to affect males.
B) more likely to affect females.
C) equally likely to affect males and females.
D) a result of fragile X syndrome.

Question 59

The influence of the child's _____ on his/her _____ represents the active child theme.

A) genotype; phenotype
B) environment; phenotype
C) phenotype; environment
D) genotype; environment

Question 60

A clear relationship between the severity of the gene anomaly and the resulting phenotype is displayed by examining the genetic underpinnings of:

A) Down syndrome.
B) Williams syndrome.
C) autism spectrum disorder.
D) all of these.

Question 61

Which statement is TRUE?

A) Mutations aside, the structure of DNA remains fixed throughout one's life.
B) Epigenetic mechanisms can alter the expression of genes.
C) Changes in the expression of genes can be passed on to offspring.
D) Each gene is a segment of DNA that is the code for the production of particular proteins.

Question 62

Marika and her husband would like to have a baby. Today, Marika has an appointment with her obstetrician. They will determine if she is a carrier of a specific disorder that could impact the development of a baby. This is known as:

A) genetic testing.
B) newborn screening.
C) prenatal testing.
D) pharmacogenomics testing.

Question 63

_____ lead(s) to extremely high rates of fetal and infant mortality.

A) Edwards syndrome
B) Patau syndrome
C) Both Edwards syndrome and Patau syndrome
D) Neither Edwards syndrome nor Patau syndrome

Question 64

This disorder causes a severe birth defect that culminates in death by the age of 5 years.

A) Down syndrome
B) Edwards syndrome
C) Tay-Sachs disease
D) Patau syndrome

Question 65

Gene expression can be suppressed by the process of:

A) methylation.
B) mutation.
C) recession.
D) myelination.

Question 66

Eddie and Freddy are identical twins who grew up in the same home but then went their separate ways after high school. Eddie moved to the Prairies and became a family farmer. Freddy moved to Toronto and became a high-powered attorney. A university research project measures their DNA methylation levels at age 6 years, age 36 years, and age 60 years. Which statement MOST likely reflects the results?

A) Eddie and Freddy will have virtually no differences in their methylation levels.
B) Eddie and Freddy will have vastly different methylation levels at all ages.
C) Eddie and Freddy's methylation levels at age 6 years will be similar but will diverge as they get older.
D) There is no way to predict Eddie and Freddy's comparative methylation levels.

Question 67

Ashley is currently 5 months pregnant. When she had an ultrasound performed, her obstetrician found a suspected abnormality with her pregnancy. Today, they are taking a sample of the amniotic fluid to do further testing. What type of test is this?

A) prenatal screening test
B) CVS
C) amniocentesis
D) IVF

Question 68

This type of testing is typically offered to those who have an increased likelihood of carrying the recessive gene for Tay-Sachs disease.

A) carrier genetic testing
B) genetic testing
C) newborn screening
D) pharmacogenomics testing

Question 69

Which individual has an increased likelihood of carrying the recessive gene for Tay-Sachs disease?

A) Maria, who is from the Caribbean
B) Mark, who is African American
C) Samantha, who is Latino
D) Jacob, who is of Eastern European Jewish descent

Question 70

Genetic testing is used frequently for _____, which is using information about an individual's genetic makeup to determine which course of treatment is most likely to be effective.

A) pharmacogenomics testing
B) genetic testing
C) newborn screening
D) carrier genetic testing

Question 71

This provincial genetic screening program is offered in every Canadian province.

A) carrier genetic testing
B) newborn screening
C) prenatal testing
D) prenatal diagnostic screening

Question 72

Which effect(s) is/are an example of the relationship between the child's phenotype and the child's environment? Effect A: effect of the environment created by the child's parents on the child's behaviour. Effect B: effect of the child's interests on the environment the child seeks out. Effect C: effect of the child's behaviour on the parents' responses to the child.

A) both effects A and B
B) both effects A and C
C) both effects B and C
D) effects A, B, and C

Question 73

_____ can be done at any point in an individual's life span in order to diagnose a disease or find genetic clues that predict the likelihood of developing a disease.

A) Genetic testing
B) Newborn screening
C) Prenatal testing
D) Pharmacogenomics testing

Question 74

Juan and Kaya would like to have a baby. They are getting tested to determine if either of them is a carrier of a recessive gene for sickle-cell disease. What is the likelihood that their child would develop the disease if both parents are carriers?

A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 35%
D) 75%

Question 75

Epigenetics is MOST relevant to which relationship?

A) child's environment‒child's phenotype
B) child's phenotype‒child's environment
C) child's genotype‒child's phenotype
D) child's environment‒child's genotype

Question 76

This is a genetic disorder that results from either missing chromosomes or having extra chromosomes. The severity of this disorder depends on the location of the chromosomal abnormality.

A) trisomy 18
B) Patau syndrome
C) aneuploidy
D) sickle-cell disease

Question 77

This type of testing is genetic testing during pregnancy.

A) prenatal testing
B) PKY testing
C) newborn screening
D) pharmacogenomics testing

Question 78

Jacquelynne is 6 months pregnant and is having blood drawn for genetic testing of her baby. What type of testing is this?

A) prenatal screening test
B) PKU testing
C) newborn screening
D) pharmacogenomics testing

Question 79

Which individual has an increased likelihood of carrying the recessive gene for sickle-cell disease?

A) Omari, who is of African descent
B) Juan, who is from Mexico
C) Marko, who is of Eastern European Jewish descent
D) Stacey, who is Caucasian

Question 80

Lenny is a very active toddler who began to crawl, pull himself up to a standing position, walk, climb, and run at a very early age. Which statement is NOT an example of a way in which Lenny's phenotype may affect his environment?

A) Chasing Lenny and keeping him safe has made his parents very tired and stressed, resulting in a lack of patience with Lenny.
B) Lenny regularly seeks out new adventures, such as climbing to the top of his backyard swing set, in which he often gets injured and must be seen by a doctor.
C) In an attempt to get Lenny to use his high activity level in a constructive manner, his parents enroll him in a gymnastics class.
D) Lenny's father is also quite active, and he frequently brings Lenny to the playground, athletic games, and amusement parks.