Deck 3: Genetics: From Genotype to Phenotype

Question 1

Early researchers such as Mendel and Bateson learned about inheritance __________.

A) by looking at the genes themselves
B) by replicating small sequences of DNA
C) by studying human
D) none of these

Answer 1

none of these

Question 2

The "unit factors" mentioned in Mendel's postulates correspond with which biological unit?

A) alleles
B) cells
C) entire DNA strands
D) chromosomes

Answer 2

alleles

Question 3

If the allele for type O blood is recessive and the allele for type A blood is dominant, a person with a A and O alleles would have type __________ blood.

A) A
B) O
C) AO
D) OA

Answer 3

A

Question 4

The pea plants Mendel studied were ideal because they display __________ for several independent traits.

A) blended inheritance
B) no variation
C) dominant alleles
D) dichotomous variation

Question 5

Regulatory regions are likely to play a stronger role than structural genes in creating variations between related species.

Question 6

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Mendel's F2 generation?

A) it had a 3:1 ratio in the expression of the original parental lines
B) dominant and recessive traits were revealed
C) it was a mating of two lines that were true-breeding
D) all of these

Question 7

Dihybrid cross experiments were essential to __________.

A) Mendel's Law of Segregation
B) Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment
C) discovering the particulate nature of inheritance in general
D) discovering the nature of dominant and recessive alleles

Question 8

Mendel found that when an individual has two different unit factors responsible for a characteristic __________.

A) that characteristic was not expressed
B) only the allele from the father was expressed
C) the factor that is expressed is dominant
D) only the allele from the mother was expressed

Question 9

Which of the following best defines the term genotype?

A) the actual alleles an organism carries
B) the physical expression of an organisms genes
C) the role of the environment plays in gene expression
D) an organisms haploid gametes

Question 10

Which of the following best describes Mendel's Law of Segregation?

A) dominant alleles suppress recessive alleles
B) inheritance is governed by discrete particles
C) segregating pairs of unit factors assort independently
D) chromosomes randomly segregate into sex cells

Question 11

An allele that needs to be present on only one chromosomal locus to be expressed is called a allele.

A) recessive
B) structural
C) dominant
D) phenotypic

Question 12

Structural genes __________.

A) contain information to make proteins
B) are surrounded be regulatory regions
C) may be similar across species
D) all of these

Question 13

In Mendel's experiments, the F1 generation __________.

A) was a mating of two lines that were true-breeding
B) had a 3:1 ratio in the expression of the original parental lines
C) revealed dominant and recessive traits
D) was a mating of different species

Question 14

Mendel's first postulate states that hereditary characteristics are controlled by blended units.

Question 15

Environmental factors play little to no role in determining obesity.

Question 16

A recessive allele __________.

A) needs to be present on only one chromosome to be expressed
B) is never expressed
C) needs to be present on both chromosomes to be expressed
D) occurs as a regulatory gene only

Question 17

Mendel's work proved the blended nature of inheritance.

Question 18

In some cases, the __________ interacts with factors in the environment to create a __________.

A) phenotype, genotype
B) allele, regulatory region
C) genotype, phenotype
D) protein, genotype

Question 19

The observable physical features of an organism comprise its __________.

A) genotype
B) phenotype
C) allele frequency
D) recessive allele

Question 20

A gene that contains information important to initiating transcription is a gene.

A) structural
B) regulatory
C) coding
D) phenotype

Question 21

Genetic mutations can never be good.

Question 22

Because sickle cell anemia is an autosomal recessive disease, there is a __________ % chance that the child of two carriers will have the disease.

A) 50
B) 25
C) 100
D) 0

Question 23

Sickle cell anemia is an example of a disease resulting from an insertion mutation.

Question 24

An autosomal dominant disease occurs when an individual is __________.

A) heterozygous for a dominant, disease-causing allele
B) codominant for a recessive, disease-causing allele
C) homozygous for a recessive, disease-causing allele
D) none of these

Question 25

The independent assortment of genes on the same chromosome is impossible.

Question 26

The closer genes are to each other on a chromosome __________.

A) the more likely they are to be separated due to crossing over
B) the less likely they are to be separated due to crossing over
C) the more likely they are to be linked in mitosis
D) the less likely they are to be linked

Question 27

Which of the following is true of sickle cell disease?

A) it shortens the life span of red blood cells
B) it causes blood cells to clump together in small blood vessels
C) it damages the spleen
D) all of these

Question 28

Mutations often have little phenotypic effect because __________.

A) they often occur in non-coding regions
B) codon changes are often insignificant
C) proteins can withstand minor amino acid variations
D) all of these

Question 29

About half of the known trinucleotide diseases are characterized by __________ repeats.

A) CAG
B) GA
C) ATA
D) GCA

Question 30

Mutations in are much more critical.

A) non-coding regions
B) structural genes
C) introns
D) RNA

Question 31

Trinucleotide repeat diseases are caused by __________.

A) insertion mutations
B) autosomal recessive mutations
C) deletion mutations
D) point mutations

Question 32

The vast majority of mutations are probably __________.

A) good
B) bad
C) neutral
D) fatal

Question 33

Mutations during meiosis are especially important because they __________.

A) are usually lethal
B) tend to occur in regulatory genes
C) are inherited
D) are more common

Question 34

Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment indicates that __________.

A) dominant alleles suppress recessive alleles
B) inheritance is governed by discrete particles
C) segregating pairs of unit factors assort independently
D) chromosomes randomly segregate into sex cells

Question 35

Which of the following is caused by an insertion mutation?

A) sickle cell disease
B) Down's syndrome
C) Hasburgs face
D) Huntington's disease

Question 36

Linkage refers to __________.

A) genes that are on the same chromosome
B) alleles that appear on different chromosomes but are linked to the same trait
C) several traits that are linked to the same genes
D) none of these

Question 37

Which of the following conditions represents a neutral mutation?

A) sickle cell disease
B) Habsburg face
C) Down's syndrome
D) X-linked disorders

Question 38

A point mutation occurs when __________ is changed.

A) a single gene
B) an allele pair is changed
C) an introns is changed
D) a single base in a gene

Question 39

An autosomal recessive disease occurs when an individual is __________.

A) heterozygous for a dominant, disease-causing allele
B) codominant for a recessive, disease-causing allele
C) homozygous for a dominant, disease-causing allele
D) homozygous for a recessive, disease-causing allele

Question 40

Huntington's disease is an example of a __________.

A) disease caused by mutation
B) polyglutamine expansion disease
C) trinucleotide repeat disease
D) all of these

Question 41

__________ variation lends itself to Mendelian explanations.

A) Phenotypic
B) Qualitative
C) Phylogenic
D) Quantitative

Question 42

One gene can have multiple phenotypic effects.

Question 43

The twin method is a way of investigating __________.

A) the role of the environment in determining a certain trait
B) the role of genetics in determining a certain trait
C) heritability
D) all of these

Question 44

Heritability is __________.

A) a direct measure of specific gene's contribution to a trait
B) a population statistic offering little specific knowledge
C) a direct measure of how a specific environment affects a trait
D) a way to determine if twins are MZ or DZ

Question 45

The ?__________ chromosome is larger.

A) Y
B) X

Question 46

Quantitative variation refers to __________.

A) rare variations
B) non-overlapping phenotypic variants
C) monogenic traits
D) continuous variation for some trait

Question 47

Which of the following is ??NOT an X-linked disorder?

A) red-color blindness
B) green-colorblindness
C) Huntington's disease
D) hemophilia

Question 48

Determining heritability provides direct insight into individual genetic mechanisms.

Question 49

__________ is a measure of the proportion of the total variation observed in a population that can be attributed to genetics, rather than the environment.

A) Eugenics
B) Pleiotropy
C) Heritability
D) Qualitative variation

Question 50

With regards to IQ tests, heritability scores only apply .

A) within a population
B) between populations

Question 51

A significantly higher concordance rate for a trait in MZ twins indicates that may be important in the expression of that trait.

A) the environment
B) pleiotropy
C) genetic factors
D) the house in which the twins were raised

Question 52

Which group consistently scores highest on IQ tests?

A) American whites
B) American blacks
C) American Asians
D) none of these

Question 53

Because X-linked disorders are essentially __________, they will only appear in the __________ sex.

A) autonomic recessive disorders/ homogametic
B) autonomic dominant disorders/ homogametic
C) autonomic recessive disorders/ heterogametic
D) autonomic dominant disorders/ heterogametic

Question 54

Polygenic traits __________.

A) are usually caused by single genes
B) are easily explained by Mendelian genetics
C) appear as a continuum in a population
D) all of these

Question 55

Phenylketonuria is caused by __________.

A) a single point mutation
B) a dominant allele
C) environmental factors such as diet
D) a recessive allele

Question 56

It is likely that every individual carries a mutation in some gene.

Question 57

Traits that occur as a continuum in a population are likely to be due to __________.

A) X-linked disorders
B) polygenic inheritance
C) single gene effect
D) none of these

Question 58

Pleiotropy is best defined as __________.

A) one gene, one effect
B) one gene having multiple phenotypic effects
C) heritability
D) the effect of the environment on gene action

Question 59

Females are usually only carriers of X-linked disorders.

Question 60

Most scientists would agree that heritability plays no role in IQ test score variability.

Question 61

Explain the mechanics of the ABO blood system. What is the relationship between genotype and phenotype within this system? Be sure to include the terms recessive, dominant, and codominant.

Question 62

Using obesity as an example, explain the complex relationship between genes, environments and phenotypes.

Question 63

The popularity of the eugenics movement waned in the United States __________.

A) by the 1920s
B) after WWII
C) in the late twentieth century
D) before WWII

Question 64

Using a Punnett square, illustrate and explain the F2 generation of Mendel's pea experiment.

Question 65

From a gene's perspective, the "environment" is made up mainly of __________.

A) nutritional factors
B) factors such as air temperature and atmospheric gasses
C) body temperature
D) other genes

Question 66

The symptoms of PKU include __________.

A) neurological problems
B) characteristic gait and stance
C) light skin and hair
D) all of these

Question 67

In the United States, legislation allowed for the involuntary sterilization of "mental defectives."

Question 68

Outline and explain Mendel's postulates.

Question 69

The effects of the PKU allele __________.

A) can be combated with dietary regulation
B) are immediately fatal
C) pose no threat to infants
D) are more dangerous in adults

Question 70

Explain the difference between structural and regulatory genes. What is the role of regulatory genes in creating variation between related species?

Question 71

A 1920s public presentation of Mendelian genetics would emphasize __________.

A) the dangers of evolution
B) the dangers of mating with "abnormal" people
C) Darwin's ideas of natural selection
D) ideas of blending inheritance

Question 72

Encouraging the educated upper classes to procreate was an example of __________.

A) positive eugenics
B) negative eugenics

Question 73

Nutritional intervention can completely suppress the effects of the PKU allele.

Question 74

Discuss the concept of heritability. How might twin studies help us determine heritability?

Question 75

The Nazi Party's "final solution" was an example of __________.

A) positive eugenics
B) negative eugenics

Question 76

Citing examples, explain how some mutations can be bad while others may be neutral.

Question 77

What is PKU and how is it inherited? Explain how PKU is as much a result of environment as it is of genetics.

Question 78

In what ways can mutation be good?

Question 79

Using specific examples, explain the difference between autosomal recessive disorders and autosomal dominant disorders.

Question 80

The Eugenics movement was popular with __________.

A) recent immigrants
B) "lower class" people
C) women
D) all of these