Deck 7: Acute and Post-Traumatic Stress Disorders, Dissociative Disorders, and Somatoform Disorders

Question 1

Which of the following variables predicted lower rates of posttraumatic stress disorder after the attack on the World Trade Centre in New York?

A) hardiness
B) extraversion
C) responsibility
D) sensation seeking

Answer 1

hardiness

Question 2

What was the first focus of research on posttraumatic stress disorder as the aftermath of traumatic events?

A) rape victims
B) Vietnam War veterans
C) World War II veterans
D) victims of natural disaster

Answer 2

Vietnam War veterans

Question 3

Which of the following is a good definition of the term dissociation?

A) separation from loved ones
B) withdrawal from intimate relationships and social isolation
C) disruption of mental processes of memory, consciousness, identity, and perception
D) the disengagement of physiological from psychological processes

Answer 3

disruption of mental processes of memory, consciousness, identity, and perception

Question 4

The medical records of a patient at the local mental health center indicate that she has experienced a general numbing of responsiveness or detachment from others. Based on this symptom, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

A) pain disorder
B) conversion disorder
C) somatization disorder
D) acute stress disorder

Question 5

As a clinician you would be most concerned about the probability of posttraumatic stress disorder in a victim of which of the following?

A) rape
B) natural disaster
C) serious car crash
D) sudden unexpected death

Question 6

A psychologist is interviewing a client who reports having experienced a severe trauma; before making a diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder, the psychologist would want to find evidence that the client is experiencing

A) dissociative symptoms.
B) persistent symptoms of increased arousal.
C) depression.
D) physical symptoms, such as headaches or stomach distress.

Question 7

Which cluster of symptoms most sharply differentiates acute stress disorder from posttraumatic stress disorder?

A) dissociative
B) somatoform
C) factitious
D) reexperiencing

Question 8

To meet the DSM-IV-TR definition of trauma, an event must involve not only actual or threatened death to self or others but also

A) a response of intense fear, helplessness, or horror.
B) an inability to recall the event.
C) depression and substance abuse.
D) a belief that one was responsible for the event.

Question 9

A psychologist is talking about the self-blame that occurs in cases of rape. What factors tend to influence such reactions to rape?

A) cultural myths suggest that women provoke rape
B) deep seated tendencies to punish oneself for past deeds
C) a natural physiological reaction seeks to restore a sense of justice
D) pre-existing disorders such as obsessive-compulsive disorder lead to self-blame

Question 10

Which of the following is a common characteristic of acute stress disorder and posttraumatic stress disorder?

A) flashbacks
B) sleepwalking
C) multiple personalities
D) increased parasympathetic nervous system arousal

Question 11

In the case of Stephanie, the victim of rape discussed in the textbook, for months after her assault she was constantly on the lookout for new threats. This condition is called

A) hypersensitivity.
B) hypovigilance.
C) hypervigilance.
D) Korsokov's syndrome.

Question 12

Acute stress disorder (ASD) was not included in early editions of DSM. Its inclusion in DSM-IV was justified in part because ASD

A) is more severe than PTSD.
B) lasts longer than PTSD.
C) may predict future PTSD.
D) is more treatable than PTSD.

Question 13

A psychologist wants to collect some information from individuals who have been diagnosed as suffering either acute stress disorder or posttraumatic stress disorder. Which of the following could provide the best indication of the presence of certain symptoms in these individuals?

A) They are asked to keep track of their calorie intake for a period of two months.
B) They are asked to fill out a questionnaire asking for basic demographic information.
C) They are videotaped as they wait to be interviewed and react to an expected loud noise.
D) They are asked to proceed to another building on campus and their speed of walking is measured.

Question 14

Marjorie has just experienced a traumatic event, and she is feeling cut off from herself and her environment and reports feeling like a robot. A mental health professional would say that Marjorie is experiencing

A) derealization.
B) depersonalization.
C) amnesia.
D) flashbacks.

Question 15

Which of the following is a description of what has been termed secondary victimization in cases of rape?

A) Family members often ignore the victim.
B) Multiple diagnoses are often made following a rape.
C) Many cases of rape involve multiple crimes such as robbery.
D) Various professionals exhibit a degree of insensitivity to rape victims.

Question 16

A recent study found that ____ percent of rape survivors had thoughts of suicide?

A) 5
B) 10
C) 33
D) 66

Question 17

An event that involves actual or threatened death or serious injury to self or others and creates intense feelings of fear, helplessness, or horror is defined by the DSM-IV-TR as involving

A) feelings of numbness.
B) stress.
C) traumatic stress.
D) eustress.

Question 18

Ray has the diagnosis of acute stress disorder; Bob has been diagnosed as suffering from posttraumatic stress disorder. What is a major difference in their conditions?

A) Bob has had the symptoms for longer than Ray.
B) Ray's symptoms are the result of a social stressor, not a natural stressor.
C) Bob's symptoms involve a greater level of autonomic nervous system activation.
D) Ray is likely to have more trouble sleeping than Bob who is more likely to have appetite difficulties.

Question 19

Which of the following events would fit the DSM description of situations that could lead to posttraumatic stress disorder?

A) The car Ted was driving spun out of control and almost fell off a bridge as he waited helplessly to be rescued.
B) While driving on the interstate, Kevin passes the site of a serious bus accident that is commemorated by a stone monument.
C) The roller coaster ride was faster and had more turns than Alice had been told before she agreed to go with her friends.
D) The newspaper account of a bank robbery and gun fight between the robbers and police contained more vivid details than Frank expected.

Question 20

You are asked to review the DSM diagnostic criteria for traumatic stress disorders. Under which category will you find these disorders?

A) anxiety disorders
B) psychotic disorders
C) adjustment disorders
D) psychophysiological disorders

Question 21

When people with PTSD are able to integrate the experience of trauma and find some broader reason or higher value for enduring it, they are engaging in the task of

A) emotional reintegration.
B) meaning making.
C) intellectualizing.
D) denying the reality of their pain.

Question 22

The National Comorbidity Study found that the course of posttraumatic stress disorder is best described as follows:

A) The person fully recovers.
B) Symptoms tend to diminish gradually.
C) Most people with PTSD report symptoms of the disorder 10 years later.
D) PTSD usually leads to severe alcohol and drug problems.

Question 23

What are the elements of the two-factor theory explanation of the development and maintenance of posttraumatic stress disorder?

A) anxiety and phobias
B) repression and withdrawal
C) reinforcement and punishment
D) classical and operant conditioning

Question 24

The term given to positive changes resulting from trauma is

A) posttraumatic growth.
B) hardiness.
C) integration.
D) meaning making.

Question 25

What accounts for the reports of higher incidence rates of posttraumatic stress disorder in recent research?

A) the inclusion of ASD along with PTSD
B) recognition that traumatic stresses are common
C) redefining "trauma" as involving more ordinary forms of stress
D) the inclusion of adjustment disorders along with PTSD

Question 26

New York City college students had lower rates of PTSD following September 11 if they were better at enhancing and suppressing emotional expression. This is an example of what psychologist Edna Foa calls emotional processing, which involves three key stages. Each of the following is one of her stages EXCEPT

A) victims need to engage in a specialized counseling as soon as possible after the event.
B) victims must engage emotionally with their traumatic memories.
C) victims need to find a way to articulate and organize their chaotic experience.
D) victims must come to believe that, despite the trauma, the world is not a terrible place.

Question 27

A national study found that approximately ___ percent of the people in the United States suffered from PTSD at some point.

A) 2
B) 7
C) 12
D) 15

Question 28

If you were to summarize the main results with regard to the biological factors in the cause of PTSD from the study of twins who served in Vietnam, what would you say?

A) Genetic factors account for little in PTSD.
B) Level of exposure did not predict PTSD symptoms.
C) Genetic factors were most significant in accounting for arousal/anxiety symptoms.
D) Whether individuals were exposed to trauma was not affected by genetic influences.

Question 29

A person with acute stress disorder is most likely to develop posttraumatic stress disorder when

A) the trauma is especially severe.
B) the trauma involves the possibility of death.
C) symptoms of numbing, depersonalization, and reliving the trauma are present.
D) the person develops a complete amnesia for the traumatic event.

Question 30

With respect to the value of critical incident stress debriefing (CISD),

A) CISD almost always prevents future PTSD.
B) there is no evidence that CISD prevents PTSD.
C) CISD is never harmful to those who receive it.
D) CISD should not be offered until several days after the trauma.

Question 31

What event seemed to trigger Dallae's case of dissociative fugue reported in the text?

A) poor grades
B) her parents' divorce
C) recovered memories of sexual abuse
D) breakup of a longstanding relationship

Question 32

Which of the following is the best description of the development of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

A) Some individuals are predisposed to develop PTSD and there is nothing they can do to stop its emergence.
B) The severity of the traumatic event is the most important factor in the development of PTSD.
C) PTSD develops in individuals who have inherited certain physiological patterns, regardless of their level of exposure to trauma.
D) PTSD results from the interaction of a traumatic event occurring to individuals with certain risk factors such as a history of mental disorder or a susceptibility to PTSD.

Question 33

What is the single most common traumatic event that can lead to PTSD?

A) rape
B) losing a job
C) combat exposure
D) sudden unexpected death of a loved one

Question 34

Which of the following types of medication is most often prescribed for PTSD?

A) anti-anxiety medications
B) anti-hypertensive medications
C) anti-depressant medications.
D) stimulant medications.

Question 35

Evidence suggests that individuals diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder have regions of their brains that are structurally and functionally different than controls. All of the following are suggested in the textbook as an explanation of this observation EXCEPT

A) damage caused by trauma.
B) damage caused by drug treatment of the PTSD.
C) normal biological adaptations to stress.
D) preexisting differences.

Question 36

Research on social factors and the risk of posttraumatic stress disorder suggests a role of social support in the etiology of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). It was found that

A) veterans who didn't face the embarrassment of being treated as heroes had lower rates of PTSD.
B) veterans from units that encouraged independence had lower rates of PTSD.
C) veterans who did not receive social support on their return had high rates of PTSD.
D) veterans who had high social support through the Veterans Administration still had high rates of PTSD.

Question 37

The name "hysteria" (Greek for "uterus") reflects the erroneous idea that somatoform and dissociative disorders were caused by

A) confused sexual identity.
B) women's frustrated desires to have children.
C) gynecological dysfunctions that cause fevers.
D) women misinterpreting mild symptoms as catastrophic.

Question 38

Your friend has just come from a therapist who has recommended eye movement desensitization and reprocessing for posttraumatic stress disorder. Because you are taking a course in abnormal psychology, your friend asks what you think. Based on the literature, what would you say?

A) This technique is based on operant conditioning principles and seems quite effective.
B) This technique does not seem to have a theoretical basis and the limited effectiveness it does show may be due to the fact that it involves exposure.
C) Classical conditioning provides the theoretical rationale for this technique that has had mixed results.
D) Because the eyes are the "window on the mind," this technique explores hidden meanings related to traumatic events and has been extremely successful.

Question 39

Jane has been diagnosed with PTSD and has begun seeing a psychotherapist. Which of the following will be the most important strategy for her therapist to employ to achieve long-term benefit?

A) reexposure to the traumatic event
B) stress-inoculation training
C) emotional distancing
D) reactivation of defense mechanisms

Question 40

Which symptom of dissociative fugue can be used to distinguish fugue from the other dissociative disorders?

A) malingering
B) identity confusion
C) purposeful, unplanned travel
D) inability to remember details of the past

Question 41

Neisser and Harsch interviewed people about how they learned about the explosion of the space shuttle Challenger, and what they were doing at the time. They interviewed people at the time of the explosion, and then three years later. What did they find at the three-year follow-up?

A) leading questions led to false memories
B) hardly anyone remembered what they were doing
C) about one-third had vivid but inaccurate memories
D) nearly everyone showed accurate memories of where they were

Question 42

The famous case study by Thigpen and Cleckley (1957) that started the public's fascination with the idea of multiple personality disorder, now called dissociative identity disorder, became a book and movie called

A) Michelle Remembers.
B) Eve Black and Eve White.
C) The Three Faces of Eve.
D) The Shinning.

Question 43

What is the most common form of dissociative amnesia?

A) selective amnesia
B) regressive amnesia
C) continuous amnesia
D) generalized amnesia

Question 44

What is the view of contemporary psychology regarding unconscious processes?

A) These processes do not exist.
B) These processes only play a role in abnormal emotion and cognition.
C) These processes only play a role in normal emotion and cognition.
D) These processes play a role in both normal and abnormal emotion and cognition.

Question 45

While in his bedroom, Zack suddenly feels as if he in a strange and unfamiliar place. Later, he experiences the feeling that his body does not belong to him. What is Zack experiencing?

A) fugue
B) deja vu
C) depersonalization
D) identity disorder

Question 46

The essential feature of behavior that will lead to diagnosis of dissociative fugue is

A) hearing voices outside of oneself.
B) dissociative hallucinations.
C) gradual dissociation.
D) sudden unexpected travel.

Question 47

Jean Charcot influenced the thinking of Sigmund Freud and Pierre Janet. Specifically, Freud and Janet were influenced by Charcot's

A) views on gynecology.
B) integration of multiple personalities.
C) use of hypnosis to treat and induce hysteria.
D) discovery of biological causes of somatoform disorders.

Question 48

One of the greatest controversies in psychology today is the issue of recovered memories. Some individuals argue that such memories reveal past sexual abuse; others disagree. What is one of the concerns of those that raise questions about recovered memories?

A) Therapists may be suggesting the existence of such memories to their clients.
B) Many people cannot tell the difference between what they have dreamed and reality.
C) Some psychotic individuals are reporting their delusions as examples of claimed sexual abuse.
D) Some clients are deliberately creating memories of sexual abuse in order to sue individuals against whom they have held grudges.

Question 49

Some psychologists believe the increase in the diagnosis of multiple personality disorder in recent years in the United States reflects a "fad" because

A) the diagnosis is made mostly by younger doctors.
B) the diagnosis is extremely rare in Great Britain.
C) insurance companies will now cover its treatment.
D) the growing interest in psychic phenomena has stimulated belief in the disorder.

Question 50

George Franklin was convicted of the murder of an 8-year-old that occurred over 20 years earlier. What aspect of this case is of interest to psychologists?

A) Franklin claimed he committed the murder while in a dissociative state.
B) His daughter's recovered memories were the basis for Franklin's conviction.
C) A polygraph was used to identify those who were telling the truth about the murder.
D) Franklin was covering up for a crime committed by his daughter who developed dissociative fugue.

Question 51

Which of the following individuals is going through a depersonalization experience?

A) Peter, who believes the world is out to get him
B) Abigail, who has amnesia for her name and identity
C) Ronald, who believes he has more than one personality
D) Terry, who has the sensation of floating above her body

Question 52

Epstein has suggested that we have two systems of information processing, a rational system that uses abstract, logical knowledge and a(n) ________________ system that uses intuitive knowledge to respond more quickly.

A) illogical
B) unconscious
C) right brain
D) experiential

Question 53

For a class assignment, students are required to read the book The Three Faces of Eve. The professor says he will offer extra credit to any student who can point out one of the inaccuracies in the book. Which of these students is going to earn extra credit?

A) Melissa says Eve was suffering from schizophrenia.
B) Andy says that Eve had more than three personalities.
C) Bill says that Eve lied to become a celebrity.
D) Zelda says Eve suffered from epileptic seizures that led her to engage in odd behaviors at times.

Question 54

After Linda witnessed a violent crime, she could not recall anything that happened before the trauma. Linda's experience is an example of

A) fugue.
B) dementia.
C) regressive amnesia.
D) psychogenic amnesia.

Question 55

Research suggests many reasons to disbelieve claims that dissociative disorders are prevalent but overlooked. The following are all reasons presented in the textbook for this EXCEPT

A) most cases of DID are diagnosed by a small group of advocates.
B) the increase in the frequency of the diagnosis correlated with the release of a popular book and movie.
C) DID is rarely diagnosed outside of Canada and the United States.
D) the diagnosis of DID has been associated with specific religious groups.

Question 56

Multiple personality disorder is now known as

A) depersonalization.
B) selective amnesia.
C) dissociative fugue.
D) dissociative identity disorder.

Question 57

What is the cause of psychogenic amnesia?

A) malingering
B) brain injury
C) emotional distress
D) neurotransmitter imbalance

Question 58

In the DSM-IV-TR, fugue and psychogenic amnesia are in the category of dissociative disorders while the traumatic stress disorders are classified as anxiety disorders, but many psychologists believe there is an important link between them. Which of the following provides evidence of such a link?

A) They are all closely tied to the phenomenon of recovered memories.
B) They all usually involve a clear and sudden trauma that, for most people, would be followed by a rapid return to normal psychological functioning.
C) They all involve some significant distortions of reality.
D) They are all chronic disorders from which a return to normal psychological functioning is very unlikely.

Question 59

Some psychologists do not see hypnosis as an altered state of consciousness. How are they likely to view being hypnotized?

A) a form of depersonalization
B) a form of psychogenic amnesia
C) a sign of predisposition to dissociation
D) a response to suggestion and expectations

Question 60

Why are studies that seem to demonstrate the phenomenon of implicit memory important?

A) They indicate that memory can only affect behavior when there is conscious remembering.
B) They show that unconscious mental processes really do not exist.
C) They represent a research technique that enables scientists to study unconscious processes.
D) They provide objective evidence for the existence of a dissociative disorder.

Question 61

Iatrogenesis refers to

A) state-dependent learning.
B) inability to recognize faces.
C) emotional reliving of past experiences.
D) treatment that causes, not cures, a disorder.

Question 62

Which category of disorders is often associated with unnecessary medical treatment?

A) somatoform disorders
B) adjustment disorders
C) dissociative disorders
D) schizophrenic disorders

Question 63

Some epidemiological studies, using instruments like the Dissociative Experiences Questionnaire (DEQ), have reported high rates of dissociative symptoms, but these studies are viewed skeptically because

A) dissociative symptoms cannot be measured based on self-reports.
B) the symptoms measured by the DEQ are far less dramatic than those found in dissociative disorders.
C) there is no agreement as to what dissociative symptoms should be measured.
D) people with real dissociative disorders are not able to complete the DEQ.

Question 64

The sudden onset of paralysis or blindness without a clear biological cause is an example of

A) malingering.
B) depersonalization.
C) somatoform disorder.
D) dissociative disorder.

Question 65

What is the main objective in treating patients with dissociative identity disorder?

A) stop abreaction
B) reduce depersonalization
C) induce amnesia for all but one personality
D) reintegrate the different personalities into a whole

Question 66

Which of the following is a problem associated with somatoform disorders?

A) unnecessary surgery
B) stress-related illnesses
C) amnesia due to organic brain dysfunction
D) legal difficulties due to having more than one personality

Question 67

What is the basis for the controversy about the role of trauma in the etiology of multiple personality disorder?

A) patients' reluctance to disclose trauma
B) poor reliability of the definition of trauma
C) concern about the validity of retrospective reports
D) case histories that show few cases associated with trauma

Question 68

The symptoms of conversion disorder often resemble

A) flu-like symptoms.
B) neurological diseases.
C) gastrointestinal problems.
D) dissociative identity disorder.

Question 69

What disorder did Kenneth Bianchi (the "Hillside Strangler") feign in his attempt to explain his participation in several murders?

A) depersonalization
B) dissociative fugue
C) dissociative amnesia
D) dissociative identity disorder

Question 70

Which of the following is characteristic of somatoform disorders?

A) They are the result of malingering.
B) They have no clear biological cause.
C) The symptoms are hypnotically induced.
D) The disorders consist of the presentation of impossible symptoms.

Question 71

Not all psychologists agree that multiple personality disorder is a psychological disorder. What is the most commonly asserted alternative hypothesis used to explain behavior described as "multiple personality disorder"?

A) The patient has an affective disorder.
B) The patient has organic brain dysfunction.
C) The patient responds to expectations by playing a role.
D) The patient is under the influence of psychoactive drugs.

Question 72

There is dispute about the importance of trauma as a factor in the etiology of dissociative identity disorder (DID) because

A) there is no agreement as to what actually constitutes trauma.
B) studies of the long-term consequences of child physical or sexual abuse have found little evidence of dissociation.
C) it is not possible to confirm whether a person has ever experienced any trauma.
D) most people diagnosed with DID deny having ever experienced a trauma.

Question 73

If a patient with somatization disorder is described as presenting symptoms in a histrionic manner what has the clinician concluded?

A) The physical symptoms do not make anatomical sense.
B) The patient's report is filled with suspicious gaps of memory.
C) The patient's symptoms are consistent with "la belle indifference."
D) The symptoms were presented in a vague but seductive and dramatic manner.

Question 74

What aspect of the somatoform disorders make them different from psychosomatic disorders?

A) They make sense neurologically.
B) They are due to an actual physical illness.
C) They are unrelated to psychological factors.
D) They cannot be explained by an underlying organic impairment.

Question 75

Terry is unable to see, even though a medical examination reveals no physical problems with her eyes or brain. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) hypochondriasis
B) dissociative fugue
C) conversion disorder
D) psychosomatic disorder

Question 76

Alice has lost any sensitivity to pain only on the left side of her face. Why is it reasonable to suspect that Alice suffers from a conversion disorder?

A) Conversion disorders often involve loss of sensitivity to pain.
B) Conversion disorders do not usually involve bilateral symptoms.
C) There is no possible organic explanation for why someone would lose pain sensation in the face.
D) The nerves involved in pain sensation do not divide the face neatly in half.

Question 77

To test the role-playing hypothesis of multiple personality disorder (MPD), Nicholas Spanos and colleagues have conducted analogue experiments in which they asked college students to play the role of an accused murderer. What have these studies shown?

A) role playing causes multiple personality disorder
B) the symptoms of MPD can be induced through hypnosis
C) the ease of role-taking correlates with risk for MPD
D) most individuals deny having a "hidden part," even under hypnosis

Question 78

Why did some experts doubt the claim that Kenneth Bianchi, the "Hillside Strangler," had multiple personality disorder?

A) An expert in hypnosis tricked Bianchi into feigning new symptoms.
B) There was no known trauma during his childhood.
C) Bianchi did not know the names of the personalities.
D) Bianchi's poor verbal skills made his responses difficult to comprehend.

Question 79

What do dissociative and somatoform disorders have in common?

A) They both involve malingering.
B) They have the same biological cause.
C) They both involve a degree of dissociation.
D) People with these disorders also have personality disorders.

Question 80

What term is used to describe the emotional reliving of past traumatic experiences?

A) abreaction
B) dissociation
C) iatrogenesis
D) prosopagnosia