Deck 13: Completing and Reporting on the Audit
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ملء الشاشة (f)
Deck 13: Completing and Reporting on the Audit
1
The final phase of an audit is to assess all of the audit evidence obtained and determine whether it is sufficient and appropriate.
True
2
Sufficiency relatto the quality of audit evidence gathered.
False
3
When Eddie Okulicz released the audit report of C Corp. he did not anticipate that there would follow an announcement two days later that several days after year-end his client's foreign subsidiary had been nationalized by Libya for non-compliance to environmental laws of the country. What type of subsequent event was this?
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
C) Type 1 and 2
D) this was not a subsequent event
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
C) Type 1 and 2
D) this was not a subsequent event
B
4
When Sydney Burns was unable to perform work on inventory because of a client's insistence that she not perform an inventory taking, what kind of audit opinion would she most likely consider?
A) adverse opinion
B) emphasis of matter
C) limitation of scope
D) disclaimer of opinion
A) adverse opinion
B) emphasis of matter
C) limitation of scope
D) disclaimer of opinion
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5
An error is an intentional misstatement in the client's financial statements.
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6
A limitation on the scope of the auditor's work could result from an inability to perform proceduror an imposition by the entity.
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7
An unqualified audit report with an emphasis of matter should be issued if a subsequent event has occurred that has resulted in a new audit report being prepared on a revised financial statement.
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8
Syed Hussein, the partner on the Rimouski Copper audit called a meeting of his senior staff during the engagement wrap-up. Which of the following areas would be the least likely to be covered during the wrap up?
A) consideration of the amount used for materiality
B) removal of all unnecessary documentation from the engagement files
C) performing analytical procedures on the adjusted financial statements
D) preparation of budgets for the following year's audit
A) consideration of the amount used for materiality
B) removal of all unnecessary documentation from the engagement files
C) performing analytical procedures on the adjusted financial statements
D) preparation of budgets for the following year's audit
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9
Ron Nucci is trying to gather sufficient appropriate evidence. Which of these are factors to consider in evaluating the sufficiency and appropriateness of audit evidence?
A) audit risk
B) control risk
C) quality of information obtained
D) none of the above
A) audit risk
B) control risk
C) quality of information obtained
D) none of the above
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10
A public auditor in practice can only perform audits and review and is prohibited from completing non-assurance engagements such as compilations of financial information and tax engagements.
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11
The auditor's responsibility for the financial statements includselecting and applying appropriate accounting policies.
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12
The client's compliance with contractual requirements of operating agreements is an example of a qualitative factor that may cause misstatements of quantitatively immaterial amounts to be considered material.
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13
The uninsured loss of inventory as a result of fire subsequent to year-end is an example of a type 2 subsequent event.
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14
Generally, the further into the future an event is likely to take place, the greater the uncertainty surrounding the event.
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15
A type 1 subsequent event providevidence with respect to conditions that developed subsequent to year-end.
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16
As soon as practicable, the auditor should communicate weaknessin internal controls to management or those charged with governance.
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17
At year-end MarisAlbion sent out accounts receivable confirmations. One of the major customers of her client confirmed that they would not be able to pay off the receivable. The client subsequently went bankrupt and an aggrieved shareholder of Marissa's client sued her firm. What type of subsequent event was this?
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
C) Type 1 and 2
D) this was not a subsequent event
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
C) Type 1 and 2
D) this was not a subsequent event
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18
Subsequent events procedurare normally performed through to and including the date of the auditor's report.
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19
Matters of governance that the auditor may wish to discuss with those charged with governance include any practical difficultiencountered in performing the audit.
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20
When Paul Sliz was reviewing existing or possible obligations on the balance sheet, he was told that the outcome for these obligations was uncertain and that the company was awaiting a future event. Paul Sliz was reviewing
A) accruals.
B) going concern.
C) materiality.
D) contingent liabilities.
A) accruals.
B) going concern.
C) materiality.
D) contingent liabilities.
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21
Which of the following are examplof qualitative considerations that may cause misstatements of quantitatively immaterial amounts to be considered material?
A) the client's compliance with contractual requirements of operating or other agreements
B) key ratios monitored by analysts or other key users of the financial statements
C) both a and b
D) none of the above
A) the client's compliance with contractual requirements of operating or other agreements
B) key ratios monitored by analysts or other key users of the financial statements
C) both a and b
D) none of the above
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22
Manuel DeSouknew that the nature of his concern about a client matter would not require a qualification. What kind of audit report was he considering?
A) qualified opinion
B) emphasis of matter
C) compilation
D) none of the above
A) qualified opinion
B) emphasis of matter
C) compilation
D) none of the above
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23
If the auditor is not able to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence, the appropriate audit opinion will either be:
A) a qualified opinion or an unqualified opinion.
B) a disclaimer of opinion or an emphasis of matter.
C) a qualified opinion or disclaimer of opinion.
D) an emphasis of matter or a qualified opinion.
A) a qualified opinion or an unqualified opinion.
B) a disclaimer of opinion or an emphasis of matter.
C) a qualified opinion or disclaimer of opinion.
D) an emphasis of matter or a qualified opinion.
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24
When misstatements or deviations from controls are found in planned procedures, consideration should always be given to:
A) the need to modify or perform further audit procedures.
B) the reason for the misstatement or deviation.
C) both a and b.
D) none of the above.
A) the need to modify or perform further audit procedures.
B) the reason for the misstatement or deviation.
C) both a and b.
D) none of the above.
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25
A limitation on the scope of the auditor's work may result from:
A) damage to accounting records.
B) lack of access to key personnel.
C) absence of adequate accounting records.
D) all of the above.
A) damage to accounting records.
B) lack of access to key personnel.
C) absence of adequate accounting records.
D) all of the above.
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26
Management's responsibilitifor the financial statements do not include which of the following?
A) selecting and applying appropriate accounting policies
B) expressing an opinion on the financial statements
C) establishing and maintaining internal controls
D) making reasonable accounting estimates
A) selecting and applying appropriate accounting policies
B) expressing an opinion on the financial statements
C) establishing and maintaining internal controls
D) making reasonable accounting estimates
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27
When Olena Vardon mentioned that the financial statements were materially misstated, what kind of opinion was this?
A) disclaimer
B) emphasis of matter
C) adverse
D) limitation of scope
A) disclaimer
B) emphasis of matter
C) adverse
D) limitation of scope
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28
Which of the following are included in the main components of the auditor's report?
A) management's responsibility for the financial statements
B) the auditor's opinion on whether the financial statements are fairly presented
C) the date of the audit report
D) all of the above
A) management's responsibility for the financial statements
B) the auditor's opinion on whether the financial statements are fairly presented
C) the date of the audit report
D) all of the above
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29
Which of the following factors is not relevant when management is assessing the going concern assumption?
A) whether the auditor specializes in the client's industry
B) the time into the future that an event is likely to take place
C) the nature and condition of the entity's business
D) the size and complexity of the entity
A) whether the auditor specializes in the client's industry
B) the time into the future that an event is likely to take place
C) the nature and condition of the entity's business
D) the size and complexity of the entity
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30
A subsequent event occurs:
A) before the end of the financial year.
B) between the client's financial year-end and the date of the auditor's report.
C) after the auditor completes the tests of controls.
D) after the auditor signs the audit engagement letter.
A) before the end of the financial year.
B) between the client's financial year-end and the date of the auditor's report.
C) after the auditor completes the tests of controls.
D) after the auditor signs the audit engagement letter.
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31
If it is not possible to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence, the auditor should:
A) express an unqualified opinion.
B) express a qualified, adverse or disclaimer of opinion.
C) report the client to CPA Canada.
D) express an unqualified opinion with an emphasis of matter.
A) express an unqualified opinion.
B) express a qualified, adverse or disclaimer of opinion.
C) report the client to CPA Canada.
D) express an unqualified opinion with an emphasis of matter.
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32
When an error or exception is identified during substantive testing, the first response is to:
A) qualify the audit report.
B) understand why the error or exception has arisen.
C) increase the sample size.
D) report the error or exception to the audit committee.
A) qualify the audit report.
B) understand why the error or exception has arisen.
C) increase the sample size.
D) report the error or exception to the audit committee.
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33
Which items are matters of governance interest that an auditor would wish to discuss with those charged with governance?
A) the general approach and overall scope of the audit
B) the potential effect on the financial statements of any material risks andexposures
C) material uncertainties related to events and conditions that may cast significant doubt on the entity's ability to continue as a going concern
D) all of the above
A) the general approach and overall scope of the audit
B) the potential effect on the financial statements of any material risks andexposures
C) material uncertainties related to events and conditions that may cast significant doubt on the entity's ability to continue as a going concern
D) all of the above
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34
When Greg Hill was preparing the audit report of his client, he did not include one of the following items in the report. Which item did he exclude?
A) report date
B) introductory paragraph
C) management's responsibility for the financial statements
D) compliance with CICA Handbook
A) report date
B) introductory paragraph
C) management's responsibility for the financial statements
D) compliance with CICA Handbook
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35
The final phase of an audit includwhich of the following?
A) performing substantive tests of account balances
B) gaining an understanding of the client's internal control system
C) confirming the terms of the audit engagement with the auditor
D) determining whether the audit evidence obtained is sufficient and appropriate to reduce the risk of material misstatements in the financial statements to an acceptably low level
A) performing substantive tests of account balances
B) gaining an understanding of the client's internal control system
C) confirming the terms of the audit engagement with the auditor
D) determining whether the audit evidence obtained is sufficient and appropriate to reduce the risk of material misstatements in the financial statements to an acceptably low level
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36
Which of the following statements regarding judgmental misstatements is incorrect?
A) They are the same as errors.
B) They can arise as a result of a difference in underlying assumptions by the client and the auditor.
C) They are not the same as errors.
D) They can arise as a result of a difference in the application of judgment by the client and the auditor.
A) They are the same as errors.
B) They can arise as a result of a difference in underlying assumptions by the client and the auditor.
C) They are not the same as errors.
D) They can arise as a result of a difference in the application of judgment by the client and the auditor.
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37
Which of the following are areas normally covered during the wrap-up of an audit engagement?
A) Perform subsequent events procedures.
B) Consider the amount used for materiality.
C) Reconsider the assessments of internal control at the entity level and the risk of fraud.
D) All of the above.
A) Perform subsequent events procedures.
B) Consider the amount used for materiality.
C) Reconsider the assessments of internal control at the entity level and the risk of fraud.
D) All of the above.
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38
Which of the following statements is correct regarding a type 1 subsequent event?
A) They are events that do not result in changes to amounts in the financial statements.
B) They occur before the end of the client's financial year.
C) They may be of such significance as to require disclosure in the financial statements.
D) The financial statements are adjusted for any material changes in estimates from these types of events.
A) They are events that do not result in changes to amounts in the financial statements.
B) They occur before the end of the client's financial year.
C) They may be of such significance as to require disclosure in the financial statements.
D) The financial statements are adjusted for any material changes in estimates from these types of events.
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39
Procedurused by an auditor when conducting a subsequent events review include:
A) assessing continued compliance with borrowing limits and loan covenants.
B) enquiring of those charged with governance as to whether any subsequent events have occurred that may affect the financial statements.
C) reading minutes of the meetings of the board of directors.
D) all of the above.
A) assessing continued compliance with borrowing limits and loan covenants.
B) enquiring of those charged with governance as to whether any subsequent events have occurred that may affect the financial statements.
C) reading minutes of the meetings of the board of directors.
D) all of the above.
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40
Under the going concern assumption:
A) an entity is viewed as not likely to continue in operation for the foreseeablefuture.
B) an entity's assets and liabilities are recorded at liquidation values.
C) an entity is viewed as continuing in business for the foreseeable future.
D) an entity is considered to be a separate legal entity from its owners.
A) an entity is viewed as not likely to continue in operation for the foreseeablefuture.
B) an entity's assets and liabilities are recorded at liquidation values.
C) an entity is viewed as continuing in business for the foreseeable future.
D) an entity is considered to be a separate legal entity from its owners.
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41
Matters of governance interest that the auditor may wish to discuss with those charged with governance include:
A) any practical difficulties encountered in performing the audit.
B) the potential effect on the financial statements of any material risks and exposures.
C) expected modifications to the audit report.
D) all of the above.
A) any practical difficulties encountered in performing the audit.
B) the potential effect on the financial statements of any material risks and exposures.
C) expected modifications to the audit report.
D) all of the above.
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42
An auditor may prepare or provide an opinion on information other than general purpose financial statement information, on all the following engagements except:
A) reports prepared in accordance with a special purpose framework.
B) reports on the component of the financial statements.
C) reports on the expected market value of the shares price for the following five years.
D) reports on compliance with contractual agreements.
A) reports prepared in accordance with a special purpose framework.
B) reports on the component of the financial statements.
C) reports on the expected market value of the shares price for the following five years.
D) reports on compliance with contractual agreements.
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43
Identify quantitative and qualitative considerations that are taken into account when the auditor evaluatwhether misstatements either cause financial statements to be materially misstated or require additional disclosure.
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44
Which of the following would not be included in an audit report?
A) The auditor's address
B) An introductory paragraph
C) The audit fee charged to the client
D) Management's responsibility for the financial statements
A) The auditor's address
B) An introductory paragraph
C) The audit fee charged to the client
D) Management's responsibility for the financial statements
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45
Those charged with governance are accountable for ensuring that the entity achievits objectivwith regard to which of the following?
A) compliance with applicable laws
B) the reliability of financial reporting
C) both a and b
D) none of the above
A) compliance with applicable laws
B) the reliability of financial reporting
C) both a and b
D) none of the above
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46
Explain the potential threats to independence relating to audit feand how an auditor can safeguard against these threats. CASE
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47
Which of the following is not an area of disagreement with those charged with governance that may result in a modified audit opinion?
A) the acceptability of accounting policies selected
B) the terms of the audit engagement
C) the method of application of accounting policies
D) the adequacy of disclosures in the financial statements
A) the acceptability of accounting policies selected
B) the terms of the audit engagement
C) the method of application of accounting policies
D) the adequacy of disclosures in the financial statements
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48
What are examplof matters of governance interest that the auditor may wish to discuss with those charged with governance.
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49
Mark Danyluk, the partner in charge of the Bombardier Aerospace audit, was reviewing the work his team had completed. Bombardier is a Canadian company. They used to be involved in recreational equipment such as Ski-Doo snowmobiland Sea-Doo watercraft. Their Aerospace division, however, is probably their best known operating segment and is known as a leading manufacturer of commuter jets containing 50-100 seats. Bombardier's operations were by far the largest of the aerospace companiin Montreal and several of the new programs were very ambitious and very risky. It seemed to Mark that every review he performed had material misstatement possibilities. Mark was thinking that an audit of this magnitude was challenging his abilitiin evaluating what was sufficient and appropriate audit evidence. When Mark started the audit of the current year's operations, he was surprised with the events that took place in 2015 at the Bourget and Farnborough air shows. The anticipation for Bombardier's new CSeriaircraft turned out to be less than positive as other manufacturers seemed to pile up the orders. Airbus executivhad also been claiming for months that their company's introduction of a new engine option (NEO) for the A320 narrowbody voided the business case for the CSeries. Although Bombardier has been able to get commitments up to 100 aircraft, the company is only one-third of the way to its goal of 300 orders for the CSerischeduled service entry in late 2017. This also still leavBombardier 350 aircraft short of the salrequired for the project to break even. As Bombardier attempts to expand its aircraft product line into medium-sized aircraft (100-149 seats), it is entering a space that is getting very close to the market segment dominated by industry giants, Boeing and Airbus. While those companitend to focus on even larger aircraft, they may want to protect themselvby defending against Bombardier in the medium-sized aircraft segment because Bombardier could later expand into the lucrative large-aircraft segment. Bombardier's $3.4-billion bet on the market for narrow-bodied aircraft faca potential threat: a price war instigated by Boeing Co. and Airbus SAS. Mark Danyluk had an uneasy feeling about the viability of the Aerospace sector of the company's operations. Required:
a) Describe the factors that Mark Danyluk and his firm will have to consider in evaluating the sufficiency and appropriateness of audit evidence at Bombardier Aerospace.
b) What factors are relevant when management assesses the going concern issue at Bombardier?
a) Describe the factors that Mark Danyluk and his firm will have to consider in evaluating the sufficiency and appropriateness of audit evidence at Bombardier Aerospace.
b) What factors are relevant when management assesses the going concern issue at Bombardier?
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50
Explain why the global financial crisis has resulted in the number of potential and actual legal liability insurance claims and explain how auditors can deal with the risk of litigation in tough economic times.
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51
Material disagreements with management will result in either:
A) a qualified opinion or adverse opinion.
B) an emphasis of matter or adverse opinion.
C) an adverse opinion or an unqualified opinion.
D) an unqualified opinion or a qualified opinion.
A) a qualified opinion or adverse opinion.
B) an emphasis of matter or adverse opinion.
C) an adverse opinion or an unqualified opinion.
D) an unqualified opinion or a qualified opinion.
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52
Explain the difference between management's and the auditor's responsibility for the financial statements.
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53
Discuss the factors that are relevant when management is assessing the going concern assumption.
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54
Demand for forensic accounting has grown following the collapsof Enron and Worldcom. Explain the important characteristics of forensic accountants and the main techniquthey use to investigate fraud.
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55
Explain the difference between type 1 and type 2 subsequent events and provide examplof each type of event.
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56
The auditor's report will not require a modified opinion where:
A) there is a disagreement with those charged with governance.
B) a limitation of scope of the engagement exists.
C) a significant uncertainty exists.
D) the financial statements are presented fairly.
A) there is a disagreement with those charged with governance.
B) a limitation of scope of the engagement exists.
C) a significant uncertainty exists.
D) the financial statements are presented fairly.
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57
Indicate whether you agree or disagree with the following statements and explain your reasoning.
a) Steven Bischoff, the senior auditor at Martineau, Hellman and Nathan made the following statement to his audit team: "What constitutes sufficient appropriate audit evidence is a matter of judgment."
b) Metropolitan Poultry Company operates as a specialty food distributor. Gordon Atkins, auditor, has told his staff that the bankruptcy of a customer at year-end should not be considered a type 1 event.
c) Mississauga Ice Pucks auditor Dave Ganesh found an omission of a disclosure in the financial statements of the hockey team. He called this an error.
d) Stacey Kurvers was told by the client that a limitation in the scope of his work would require a modification to the audit report.
a) Steven Bischoff, the senior auditor at Martineau, Hellman and Nathan made the following statement to his audit team: "What constitutes sufficient appropriate audit evidence is a matter of judgment."
b) Metropolitan Poultry Company operates as a specialty food distributor. Gordon Atkins, auditor, has told his staff that the bankruptcy of a customer at year-end should not be considered a type 1 event.
c) Mississauga Ice Pucks auditor Dave Ganesh found an omission of a disclosure in the financial statements of the hockey team. He called this an error.
d) Stacey Kurvers was told by the client that a limitation in the scope of his work would require a modification to the audit report.
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58
An unqualified audit opinion with an emphasis of matter should be given where there is:
A) inconsistent other information.
B) additional disclosures with which the auditor concurs.
C) a subsequent event that results in a new auditor's report on revised financial statements.
D) all of the above.
A) inconsistent other information.
B) additional disclosures with which the auditor concurs.
C) a subsequent event that results in a new auditor's report on revised financial statements.
D) all of the above.
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