Deck 22: Musculoskeletal System

Question 1

The elasticity of pelvic ligaments and softening of cartilage in a pregnant woman are the result of:

A) decreased mineral deposition.
B) increased hormone secretion.
C) uterine enlargement.
D) gait changes.

Answer 1

increased hormone secretion.

Question 2

The articulation of the radius and carpal bones is the:

A) wrist.
B) elbow.
C) shoulder.
D) clavicle.

Answer 2

wrist.

Question 3

The musculoskeletal examination should begin when:

A) the patient enters the examination room.
B) during the collection of subjective data.
C) when height is measured.
D) when joint mobility is assessed.

Answer 3

the patient enters the examination room.

Question 4

The temporomandibular joint is palpated:

A) under the mandible, anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
B) above the mandible at midline.
C) anterior to the tragus.
D) at the mastoid process.

Question 5

Skeletal changes in older adults are the result of:

A) increased bone deposition.
B) increased bone resorption.
C) decreased bone deposition.
D) decreased bone resorption.

Question 6

Risk factors for sports-related injuries include:

A) competing in colder climates.
B) previous fracture.
C) history of recent weight loss.
D) failure to warm up before activity.

Question 7

When palpating joints, crepitus may occur when:

A) irregular bony surfaces rub together.
B) supporting muscles are excessively spastic.
C) joints are excessively lax.
D) there is excess fluid within the synovial membrane.

Question 8

The strength of the trapezius muscle is evaluated by having the patient:

A) clench his or her teeth during muscle palpation.
B) push his or her head against the examiner's hand.
C) straighten his or her leg with examiner opposition.
D) uncross his or her legs with examiner resistance.

Question 9

The type of joint that has the widest range of motion in all planes is the:

A) ball-and-socket.
B) condyloid.
C) gliding.
D) saddle.

Question 10

The physical assessment technique most frequently used to assess joint symmetry is:

A) inspection.
B) palpation.
C) percussion.
D) the use of joint calipers.

Question 11

A goniometer is used to assess:

A) bone maturity.
B) joint proportions.
C) range of motion.
D) muscle strength.

Question 12

The family history for a patient with joint pain should include information about siblings with:

A) trauma to the skeletal system.
B) chronic atopic dermatitis.
C) genetic disorders.
D) obesity.

Question 13

The joint where the humerus, radius, and ulna articulate is the:

A) wrist.
B) elbow.
C) shoulder.
D) clavicle.

Question 14

Fasciculation occurs after injury to a muscle's:

A) venous return.
B) motor neuron.
C) strength.
D) tendon.

Question 15

Light skin and thin body habitus are risk factors for:

A) rheumatoid arthritis.
B) osteoarthritis.
C) congenital bony defects.
D) osteoporosis.

Question 16

Long bones in children have growth plates known as:

A) epiphyses.
B) epicondyles.
C) synovium.
D) fossae.

Question 17

The temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by:

A) having the patient shrug his or her shoulders.
B) having the patient clench his or her teeth.
C) asking the patient to fully extend his or her neck.
D) passively opening the patient's jaw.

Question 18

The tibia, fibula, and talus articulate to form the:

A) ankle.
B) knee.
C) hip.
D) pelvis.

Question 19

Spinal vertebrae are separated from each other by:

A) bursae.
B) tendons.
C) disks.
D) ligaments.

Question 20

Inquiry about nocturnal muscle spasms would be most significant when taking the musculoskeletal history of:

A) adolescents.
B) infants.
C) older adults.
D) middle-age adults.

Question 21

Carpal tunnel syndrome would result in:

A) a negative Tinel sign.
B) a negative Phalen test.
C) reduced abduction of the thumb.
D) palm tingling.

Question 22

A common finding in markedly obese patients and pregnant women is:

A) kyphosis.
B) lordosis.
C) paraphimosis.
D) scoliosis.

Question 23

Cardinal signs for rheumatoid disorders include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

A) Gradual onset
B) Weakness that is usually localized and not severe
C) Coarse crepitus on motion
D) Joint tenderness
E) Sleep disturbance

Question 24

When the patient flexes forward at the waist, which spinal observation would lead you to suspect scoliosis?

A) Prominent lumbar hump
B) Prominent cervical concave curve
C) Lateral curvature of the spine
D) Restricted ability to flex at the hips

Question 25

Expected normal findings during the inspection of spinal alignment include:

A) asymmetric skin folds at the neck.
B) slight right-sided scapular elevation.
C) concave lumbar curve.
D) the head positioned superiorly to the gluteal cleft.

Question 26

When the shoulder contour is asymmetric and one shoulder has hollows in the rounding contour, you would suspect:

A) kyphosis.
B) fractured scapula.
C) a dislocated shoulder.
D) muscle wasting.

Question 27

A finding that is indicative of osteoarthritis is (are):

A) swan neck deformities.
B) Bouchard nodes.
C) ganglions.
D) Heberden nodes.

Question 28

When a patient abducts an arm and the ipsilateral scapula becomes more prominent (winged), this usually means that:

A) there has been an injury to the nerve of the anterior serratus muscle.
B) one of the clavicles has been fractured.
C) there is a unilateral trapezius muscle separation.
D) one shoulder is dislocated.

Question 29

A wheelchair-dependent older woman would most likely develop skin breakdown at:

A) C7.
B) the iliac crests.
C) L4.
D) the gibbus.

Question 30

Ulnar deviation and swan neck deformities are characteristics of:

A) rheumatoid arthritis.
B) osteoarthritis.
C) osteoporosis.
D) congenital defects.

Question 31

The wrist moves in: (Select all that apply.)

A) eversion and inversion.
B) proximal radius and ulna articulation.
C) flexion and extension
D) adduction and abduction.